Florida Senate - 2018                          SENATOR AMENDMENT
       Bill No. CS/CS/HB 21, 1st Eng.
       
       
       
       
       
       
                                Ì3971722Î397172                         
       
                              LEGISLATIVE ACTION                        
                    Senate             .             House              
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                Floor: 1/RE/3R         .                                
             03/08/2018 01:05 PM       .                                
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       Senator Benacquisto moved the following:
       
    1         Senate Amendment (with title amendment)
    2  
    3         Delete everything after the enacting clause
    4  and insert:
    5         Section 1. Paragraph (c) of subsection (2) of section
    6  409.967, Florida Statutes, is amended to read:
    7         409.967 Managed care plan accountability.—
    8         (2) The agency shall establish such contract requirements
    9  as are necessary for the operation of the statewide managed care
   10  program. In addition to any other provisions the agency may deem
   11  necessary, the contract must require:
   12         (c) Access.—
   13         1. The agency shall establish specific standards for the
   14  number, type, and regional distribution of providers in managed
   15  care plan networks to ensure access to care for both adults and
   16  children. Each plan must maintain a regionwide network of
   17  providers in sufficient numbers to meet the access standards for
   18  specific medical services for all recipients enrolled in the
   19  plan. The exclusive use of mail-order pharmacies may not be
   20  sufficient to meet network access standards. Consistent with the
   21  standards established by the agency, provider networks may
   22  include providers located outside the region. A plan may
   23  contract with a new hospital facility before the date the
   24  hospital becomes operational if the hospital has commenced
   25  construction, will be licensed and operational by January 1,
   26  2013, and a final order has issued in any civil or
   27  administrative challenge. Each plan shall establish and maintain
   28  an accurate and complete electronic database of contracted
   29  providers, including information about licensure or
   30  registration, locations and hours of operation, specialty
   31  credentials and other certifications, specific performance
   32  indicators, and such other information as the agency deems
   33  necessary. The database must be available online to both the
   34  agency and the public and have the capability to compare the
   35  availability of providers to network adequacy standards and to
   36  accept and display feedback from each provider’s patients. Each
   37  plan shall submit quarterly reports to the agency identifying
   38  the number of enrollees assigned to each primary care provider.
   39         2. Each managed care plan must publish any prescribed drug
   40  formulary or preferred drug list on the plan’s website in a
   41  manner that is accessible to and searchable by enrollees and
   42  providers. The plan must update the list within 24 hours after
   43  making a change. Each plan must ensure that the prior
   44  authorization process for prescribed drugs is readily accessible
   45  to health care providers, including posting appropriate contact
   46  information on its website and providing timely responses to
   47  providers. For Medicaid recipients diagnosed with hemophilia who
   48  have been prescribed anti-hemophilic-factor replacement
   49  products, the agency shall provide for those products and
   50  hemophilia overlay services through the agency’s hemophilia
   51  disease management program.
   52         3. Managed care plans, and their fiscal agents or
   53  intermediaries, must accept prior authorization requests for any
   54  service electronically.
   55         4. Managed care plans, and their fiscal agents or
   56  intermediaries, may not implement, manage, or require a prior
   57  authorization process or step therapy procedures and may not
   58  impose any other conditions on recipients as a prerequisite to
   59  receiving medication-assisted treatment (MAT) services, as
   60  defined in s. 397.311, to treat substance abuse disorders.
   61         5. Managed care plans serving children in the care and
   62  custody of the Department of Children and Families must maintain
   63  complete medical, dental, and behavioral health encounter
   64  information and participate in making such information available
   65  to the department or the applicable contracted community-based
   66  care lead agency for use in providing comprehensive and
   67  coordinated case management. The agency and the department shall
   68  establish an interagency agreement to provide guidance for the
   69  format, confidentiality, recipient, scope, and method of
   70  information to be made available and the deadlines for
   71  submission of the data. The scope of information available to
   72  the department shall be the data that managed care plans are
   73  required to submit to the agency. The agency shall determine the
   74  plan’s compliance with standards for access to medical, dental,
   75  and behavioral health services; the use of medications; and
   76  followup on all medically necessary services recommended as a
   77  result of early and periodic screening, diagnosis, and
   78  treatment.
   79         Section 2. Section 456.0301, Florida Statutes, is created
   80  to read:
   81         456.0301Requirement for instruction on controlled
   82  substance prescribing.-
   83         (1)(a)The appropriate board shall require each person
   84  registered with the United States Drug Enforcement
   85  Administration and authorized to prescribe controlled substances
   86  pursuant to 21 U.S.C. s. 822 to complete a board-approved 2-hour
   87  continuing education course on prescribing controlled substances
   88  offered by a statewide professional association of physicians in
   89  this state that is accredited to provide educational activities
   90  designated for the American Medical Association Physician’s
   91  Recognition Award Category 1 Credit or the American Osteopathic
   92  Category 1-A continuing medical education credit as part of
   93  biennial license renewal. The course must include information on
   94  the current standards for prescribing controlled substances,
   95  particularly opiates; alternatives to these standards;
   96  nonpharmacological therapies; prescribing emergency opioid
   97  antagonists; and the risks of opioid addiction following all
   98  stages of treatment in the management of acute pain. The course
   99  may be offered in a distance learning format and must be
  100  included within the number of continuing education hours
  101  required by law. The department may not renew the license of any
  102  prescriber registered with the United States Drug Enforcement
  103  Administration to prescribe controlled substances who has failed
  104  to complete the course. The course must be completed by January
  105  31, 2019, and at each subsequent renewal. This paragraph does
  106  not apply to a licensee who is required by his or her applicable
  107  practice act to complete a minimum of 2 hours of continuing
  108  education on the safe and effective prescribing of controlled
  109  substances.
  110         (b)Each practitioner required to complete the course
  111  required in paragraph (a) shall submit confirmation of having
  112  completed such course when applying for biennial license
  113  renewal.
  114         (c)Each licensing board that requires a licensee to
  115  complete an educational course pursuant to this subsection must
  116  include the hours required for completion of the course in the
  117  total hours of continuing education required by law for such
  118  profession unless the continuing education requirements for such
  119  profession consist of fewer than 30 hours biennially.
  120         (2)Each board may adopt rules to administer this section.
  121         Section 3. Paragraph (gg) of subsection (1) of section
  122  456.072, Florida Statutes, is amended to read:
  123         456.072 Grounds for discipline; penalties; enforcement.—
  124         (1) The following acts shall constitute grounds for which
  125  the disciplinary actions specified in subsection (2) may be
  126  taken:
  127         (gg) Engaging in a pattern of practice when prescribing
  128  medicinal drugs or controlled substances which demonstrates a
  129  lack of reasonable skill or safety to patients, a violation of
  130  any provision of this chapter or ss. 893.055 and 893.0551, a
  131  violation of the applicable practice act, or a violation of any
  132  rules adopted under this chapter or the applicable practice act
  133  of the prescribing practitioner. Notwithstanding s. 456.073(13),
  134  the department may initiate an investigation and establish such
  135  a pattern from billing records, data, or any other information
  136  obtained by the department.
  137         Section 4. Paragraphs (a) through (g) of subsection (1) of
  138  section 456.44, Florida Statutes, are redesignated as paragraphs
  139  (b) through (h), respectively, a new paragraph (a) is added to
  140  that subsection, subsection (3) of that section is amended, and
  141  subsections (4), (5), and (6) are added to that section, to
  142  read:
  143         456.44 Controlled substance prescribing.—
  144         (1) DEFINITIONS.—As used in this section, the term:
  145         (a)“Acute pain” means the normal, predicted,
  146  physiological, and time-limited response to an adverse chemical,
  147  thermal, or mechanical stimulus associated with surgery, trauma,
  148  or acute illness. The term does not include pain related to:
  149         1.Cancer.
  150         2.A terminal condition. For purposes of this subparagraph,
  151  the term “terminal condition” means a progressive disease or
  152  medical or surgical condition that causes significant functional
  153  impairment, is not considered by a treating physician to be
  154  reversible without the administration of life-sustaining
  155  procedures, and will result in death within 1 year after
  156  diagnosis if the condition runs its normal course.
  157         3.Palliative care to provide relief of symptoms related to
  158  an incurable, progressive illness or injury.
  159         4.A traumatic injury with an Injury Severity Score of 9 or
  160  greater.
  161         (3) STANDARDS OF PRACTICE FOR TREATMENT OF CHRONIC
  162  NONMALIGNANT PAIN.—The standards of practice in this section do
  163  not supersede the level of care, skill, and treatment recognized
  164  in general law related to health care licensure.
  165         (a) A complete medical history and a physical examination
  166  must be conducted before beginning any treatment and must be
  167  documented in the medical record. The exact components of the
  168  physical examination shall be left to the judgment of the
  169  registrant who is expected to perform a physical examination
  170  proportionate to the diagnosis that justifies a treatment. The
  171  medical record must, at a minimum, document the nature and
  172  intensity of the pain, current and past treatments for pain,
  173  underlying or coexisting diseases or conditions, the effect of
  174  the pain on physical and psychological function, a review of
  175  previous medical records, previous diagnostic studies, and
  176  history of alcohol and substance abuse. The medical record shall
  177  also document the presence of one or more recognized medical
  178  indications for the use of a controlled substance. Each
  179  registrant must develop a written plan for assessing each
  180  patient’s risk of aberrant drug-related behavior, which may
  181  include patient drug testing. Registrants must assess each
  182  patient’s risk for aberrant drug-related behavior and monitor
  183  that risk on an ongoing basis in accordance with the plan.
  184         (b) Each registrant must develop a written individualized
  185  treatment plan for each patient. The treatment plan shall state
  186  objectives that will be used to determine treatment success,
  187  such as pain relief and improved physical and psychosocial
  188  function, and shall indicate if any further diagnostic
  189  evaluations or other treatments are planned. After treatment
  190  begins, the registrant shall adjust drug therapy to the
  191  individual medical needs of each patient. Other treatment
  192  modalities, including a rehabilitation program, shall be
  193  considered depending on the etiology of the pain and the extent
  194  to which the pain is associated with physical and psychosocial
  195  impairment. The interdisciplinary nature of the treatment plan
  196  shall be documented.
  197         (c) The registrant shall discuss the risks and benefits of
  198  the use of controlled substances, including the risks of abuse
  199  and addiction, as well as physical dependence and its
  200  consequences, with the patient, persons designated by the
  201  patient, or the patient’s surrogate or guardian if the patient
  202  is incompetent. The registrant shall use a written controlled
  203  substance agreement between the registrant and the patient
  204  outlining the patient’s responsibilities, including, but not
  205  limited to:
  206         1. Number and frequency of controlled substance
  207  prescriptions and refills.
  208         2. Patient compliance and reasons for which drug therapy
  209  may be discontinued, such as a violation of the agreement.
  210         3. An agreement that controlled substances for the
  211  treatment of chronic nonmalignant pain shall be prescribed by a
  212  single treating registrant unless otherwise authorized by the
  213  treating registrant and documented in the medical record.
  214         (d) The patient shall be seen by the registrant at regular
  215  intervals, not to exceed 3 months, to assess the efficacy of
  216  treatment, ensure that controlled substance therapy remains
  217  indicated, evaluate the patient’s progress toward treatment
  218  objectives, consider adverse drug effects, and review the
  219  etiology of the pain. Continuation or modification of therapy
  220  shall depend on the registrant’s evaluation of the patient’s
  221  progress. If treatment goals are not being achieved, despite
  222  medication adjustments, the registrant shall reevaluate the
  223  appropriateness of continued treatment. The registrant shall
  224  monitor patient compliance in medication usage, related
  225  treatment plans, controlled substance agreements, and
  226  indications of substance abuse or diversion at a minimum of 3
  227  month intervals.
  228         (e) The registrant shall refer the patient as necessary for
  229  additional evaluation and treatment in order to achieve
  230  treatment objectives. Special attention shall be given to those
  231  patients who are at risk for misusing their medications and
  232  those whose living arrangements pose a risk for medication
  233  misuse or diversion. The management of pain in patients with a
  234  history of substance abuse or with a comorbid psychiatric
  235  disorder requires extra care, monitoring, and documentation and
  236  requires consultation with or referral to an addiction medicine
  237  specialist or a psychiatrist.
  238         (f) A registrant must maintain accurate, current, and
  239  complete records that are accessible and readily available for
  240  review and comply with the requirements of this section, the
  241  applicable practice act, and applicable board rules. The medical
  242  records must include, but are not limited to:
  243         1. The complete medical history and a physical examination,
  244  including history of drug abuse or dependence.
  245         2. Diagnostic, therapeutic, and laboratory results.
  246         3. Evaluations and consultations.
  247         4. Treatment objectives.
  248         5. Discussion of risks and benefits.
  249         6. Treatments.
  250         7. Medications, including date, type, dosage, and quantity
  251  prescribed.
  252         8. Instructions and agreements.
  253         9. Periodic reviews.
  254         10. Results of any drug testing.
  255         11. A photocopy of the patient’s government-issued photo
  256  identification.
  257         12. If a written prescription for a controlled substance is
  258  given to the patient, a duplicate of the prescription.
  259         13. The registrant’s full name presented in a legible
  260  manner.
  261         (g) A registrant shall immediately refer patients with
  262  signs or symptoms of substance abuse to a board-certified pain
  263  management physician, an addiction medicine specialist, or a
  264  mental health addiction facility as it pertains to drug abuse or
  265  addiction unless the registrant is a physician who is board
  266  certified or board-eligible in pain management. Throughout the
  267  period of time before receiving the consultant’s report, a
  268  prescribing registrant shall clearly and completely document
  269  medical justification for continued treatment with controlled
  270  substances and those steps taken to ensure medically appropriate
  271  use of controlled substances by the patient. Upon receipt of the
  272  consultant’s written report, the prescribing registrant shall
  273  incorporate the consultant’s recommendations for continuing,
  274  modifying, or discontinuing controlled substance therapy. The
  275  resulting changes in treatment shall be specifically documented
  276  in the patient’s medical record. Evidence or behavioral
  277  indications of diversion shall be followed by discontinuation of
  278  controlled substance therapy, and the patient shall be
  279  discharged, and all results of testing and actions taken by the
  280  registrant shall be documented in the patient’s medical record.
  281  
  282  This subsection does not apply to a board-eligible or board
  283  certified anesthesiologist, physiatrist, rheumatologist, or
  284  neurologist, or to a board-certified physician who has surgical
  285  privileges at a hospital or ambulatory surgery center and
  286  primarily provides surgical services. This subsection does not
  287  apply to a board-eligible or board-certified medical specialist
  288  who has also completed a fellowship in pain medicine approved by
  289  the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the
  290  American Osteopathic Association, or who is board eligible or
  291  board certified in pain medicine by the American Board of Pain
  292  Medicine, the American Board of Interventional Pain Physicians,
  293  the American Association of Physician Specialists, or a board
  294  approved by the American Board of Medical Specialties or the
  295  American Osteopathic Association and performs interventional
  296  pain procedures of the type routinely billed using surgical
  297  codes. This subsection does not apply to a registrant who
  298  prescribes medically necessary controlled substances for a
  299  patient during an inpatient stay in a hospital licensed under
  300  chapter 395.
  301         (4)STANDARDS OF PRACTICE FOR TREATMENT OF ACUTE PAIN.—The
  302  applicable boards shall adopt rules establishing guidelines for
  303  prescribing controlled substances for acute pain, including
  304  evaluation of the patient, creation and maintenance of a
  305  treatment plan, obtaining informed consent and agreement for
  306  treatment, periodic review of the treatment plan, consultation,
  307  medical record review, and compliance with controlled substance
  308  laws and regulations. Failure of a prescriber to follow such
  309  guidelines constitutes grounds for disciplinary action pursuant
  310  to s. 456.072(1)(gg), punishable as provided in s. 456.072(2).
  311         (5)PRESCRIPTION SUPPLY.—
  312         (a)For the treatment of acute pain, a prescription for an
  313  opioid drug listed as a Schedule II controlled substance in s.
  314  893.03 or 21 U.S.C. s. 812 may not exceed a 3-day supply, except
  315  that up to a 7-day supply may be prescribed if:
  316         1.The prescriber, in his or her professional judgment,
  317  believes that more than a 3-day supply of such an opioid is
  318  medically necessary to treat the patient’s pain as an acute
  319  medical condition;
  320         2.The prescriber indicates “MEDICALLY NECESSARY FOR ACUTE
  321  PAIN” on the prescription; and
  322         3.The prescriber adequately documents in the patient’s
  323  medical records the acute medical condition and lack of
  324  alternative treatment options that justify deviation from the 3
  325  day supply limit established in this subsection.
  326         (b)For the treatment of pain other than acute pain, a
  327  prescriber must indicate “FOR NONACUTE PAIN” on a prescription
  328  for an opioid drug listed as a Schedule II controlled substance
  329  in s. 893.03 or 21 U.S.C. s. 812.
  330         (6)EMERGENCY OPIOID ANTAGONIST.—For the treatment of pain
  331  related to a traumatic injury with an Injury Severity Score of 9
  332  or greater, a prescriber who prescribes a Schedule II controlled
  333  substance listed in s. 893.03 or 21 U.S.C. s. 812 must
  334  concurrently prescribe an emergency opioid antagonist, as
  335  defined in s. 381.887(1).
  336         Section 5. Effective January 1, 2019, present subsections
  337  (2) through (5) of section 458.3265, Florida Statutes, are
  338  renumbered as subsections (3) through (6), respectively,
  339  paragraphs (a) and (g) of subsection (1), paragraph (a) of
  340  present subsection (2), paragraph (a) of present subsection (3),
  341  and paragraph (a) of present subsection (4) of that section are
  342  amended, and a new subsection (2) is added to that section, to
  343  read:
  344         458.3265 Pain-management clinics.—
  345         (1) REGISTRATION.—
  346         (a)1. As used in this section, the term:
  347         a. “Board eligible” means successful completion of an
  348  anesthesia, physical medicine and rehabilitation, rheumatology,
  349  or neurology residency program approved by the Accreditation
  350  Council for Graduate Medical Education or the American
  351  Osteopathic Association for a period of 6 years from successful
  352  completion of such residency program.
  353         b. “Chronic nonmalignant pain” means pain unrelated to
  354  cancer which persists beyond the usual course of disease or the
  355  injury that is the cause of the pain or more than 90 days after
  356  surgery.
  357         c. “Pain-management clinic” or “clinic” means any publicly
  358  or privately owned facility:
  359         (I) That advertises in any medium for any type of pain
  360  management services; or
  361         (II) Where in any month a majority of patients are
  362  prescribed opioids, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, or
  363  carisoprodol for the treatment of chronic nonmalignant pain.
  364         2. Each pain-management clinic must register with the
  365  department or hold a valid certificate of exemption pursuant to
  366  subsection (2).
  367         3.The following clinics are exempt from the registration
  368  requirement of paragraphs (c)-(m) and must apply to the
  369  department for a certificate of exemption unless:
  370         a. A That clinic is licensed as a facility pursuant to
  371  chapter 395;
  372         b. A clinic in which the majority of the physicians who
  373  provide services in the clinic primarily provide surgical
  374  services;
  375         c. A The clinic is owned by a publicly held corporation
  376  whose shares are traded on a national exchange or on the over
  377  the-counter market and whose total assets at the end of the
  378  corporation’s most recent fiscal quarter exceeded $50 million;
  379         d. A The clinic is affiliated with an accredited medical
  380  school at which training is provided for medical students,
  381  residents, or fellows;
  382         e. A The clinic that does not prescribe controlled
  383  substances for the treatment of pain;
  384         f. A The clinic is owned by a corporate entity exempt from
  385  federal taxation under 26 U.S.C. s. 501(c)(3);
  386         g. A The clinic is wholly owned and operated by one or more
  387  board-eligible or board-certified anesthesiologists,
  388  physiatrists, rheumatologists, or neurologists; or
  389         h. A The clinic is wholly owned and operated by a physician
  390  multispecialty practice where one or more board-eligible or
  391  board-certified medical specialists, who have also completed
  392  fellowships in pain medicine approved by the Accreditation
  393  Council for Graduate Medical Education or who are also board
  394  certified in pain medicine by the American Board of Pain
  395  Medicine or a board approved by the American Board of Medical
  396  Specialties, the American Association of Physician Specialists,
  397  or the American Osteopathic Association, perform interventional
  398  pain procedures of the type routinely billed using surgical
  399  codes.
  400         (g) The department may revoke the clinic’s certificate of
  401  registration and prohibit all physicians associated with that
  402  pain-management clinic from practicing at that clinic location
  403  based upon an annual inspection and evaluation of the factors
  404  described in subsection (4) (3).
  405         (2)CERTIFICATE OF EXEMPTION.—
  406         (a)A pain management clinic claiming an exemption from the
  407  registration requirements of subsection (1) must apply for a
  408  certificate of exemption on a form adopted in rule by the
  409  department. The form must require the applicant to provide:
  410         1.The name or names under which the applicant does
  411  business.
  412         2.The address at which the pain management clinic is
  413  located.
  414         3.The specific exemption the applicant is claiming with
  415  supporting documentation.
  416         4.Any other information deemed necessary by the
  417  department.
  418         (b)The department must approve or deny the certificate
  419  within 30 days after the receipt of a complete application.
  420         (c)The certificate of exemption must be renewed
  421  biennially, except that the department may issue the initial
  422  certificates of exemption for up to 3 years in order to stagger
  423  renewal dates.
  424         (d)A certificateholder must prominently display the
  425  certificate of exemption and make it available to the department
  426  or the board upon request.
  427         (e)A new certificate of exemption is required for a change
  428  of address and is not transferable. A certificate of exemption
  429  is valid only for the applicant, qualifying owners, licenses,
  430  registrations, certifications, and services provided under a
  431  specific statutory exemption and is valid only to the specific
  432  exemption claimed and granted.
  433         (f)A certificateholder must notify the department at least
  434  60 days before any anticipated relocation or name change of the
  435  pain management clinic or a change of ownership.
  436         (g)If a pain management clinic no longer qualifies for a
  437  certificate of exemption, the certificateholder must notify the
  438  department within 3 days after becoming aware that the clinic no
  439  longer qualifies for a certificate of exemption and register as
  440  a pain management clinic under subsection (1) or cease
  441  operations.
  442         (3)(2) PHYSICIAN RESPONSIBILITIES.—These responsibilities
  443  apply to any physician who provides professional services in a
  444  pain-management clinic that is required to be registered in
  445  subsection (1).
  446         (a) A physician may not practice medicine in a pain
  447  management clinic, as described in subsection (5) (4), if the
  448  pain-management clinic is not registered with the department as
  449  required by this section. Any physician who qualifies to
  450  practice medicine in a pain-management clinic pursuant to rules
  451  adopted by the Board of Medicine as of July 1, 2012, may
  452  continue to practice medicine in a pain-management clinic as
  453  long as the physician continues to meet the qualifications set
  454  forth in the board rules. A physician who violates this
  455  paragraph is subject to disciplinary action by his or her
  456  appropriate medical regulatory board.
  457         (4)(3) INSPECTION.—
  458         (a) The department shall inspect the pain-management clinic
  459  annually, including a review of the patient records, to ensure
  460  that it complies with this section and the rules of the Board of
  461  Medicine adopted pursuant to subsection (5) (4) unless the
  462  clinic is accredited by a nationally recognized accrediting
  463  agency approved by the Board of Medicine.
  464         (5)(4) RULEMAKING.—
  465         (a) The department shall adopt rules necessary to
  466  administer the registration, exemption, and inspection of pain
  467  management clinics which establish the specific requirements,
  468  procedures, forms, and fees.
  469         Section 6. Effective January 1, 2019, present subsections
  470  (2) through (5) of section 459.0137, Florida Statutes, are
  471  renumbered as subsections (3) through (6), respectively,
  472  paragraphs (a) and (g) of subsection (1), paragraph (a) of
  473  present subsection (2), paragraph (a) of present subsection (3),
  474  and paragraph (a) of present subsection (4) of that section are
  475  amended, and a new subsection (2) is added to that section, to
  476  read:
  477         459.0137 Pain-management clinics.—
  478         (1) REGISTRATION.—
  479         (a)1. As used in this section, the term:
  480         a. “Board eligible” means successful completion of an
  481  anesthesia, physical medicine and rehabilitation, rheumatology,
  482  or neurology residency program approved by the Accreditation
  483  Council for Graduate Medical Education or the American
  484  Osteopathic Association for a period of 6 years from successful
  485  completion of such residency program.
  486         b. “Chronic nonmalignant pain” means pain unrelated to
  487  cancer which persists beyond the usual course of disease or the
  488  injury that is the cause of the pain or more than 90 days after
  489  surgery.
  490         c. “Pain-management clinic” or “clinic” means any publicly
  491  or privately owned facility:
  492         (I) That advertises in any medium for any type of pain
  493  management services; or
  494         (II) Where in any month a majority of patients are
  495  prescribed opioids, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, or
  496  carisoprodol for the treatment of chronic nonmalignant pain.
  497         2. Each pain-management clinic must register with the
  498  department or hold a valid certificate of exemption pursuant to
  499  subsection (2).
  500         3.The following clinics are exempt from the registration
  501  requirement of paragraphs (c)-(m) and must apply to the
  502  department for a certificate of exemption unless:
  503         a. A That clinic is licensed as a facility pursuant to
  504  chapter 395;
  505         b. A clinic in which the majority of the physicians who
  506  provide services in the clinic primarily provide surgical
  507  services;
  508         c. A The clinic is owned by a publicly held corporation
  509  whose shares are traded on a national exchange or on the over
  510  the-counter market and whose total assets at the end of the
  511  corporation’s most recent fiscal quarter exceeded $50 million;
  512         d. A The clinic is affiliated with an accredited medical
  513  school at which training is provided for medical students,
  514  residents, or fellows;
  515         e. A The clinic that does not prescribe controlled
  516  substances for the treatment of pain;
  517         f. A The clinic is owned by a corporate entity exempt from
  518  federal taxation under 26 U.S.C. s. 501(c)(3);
  519         g. A The clinic is wholly owned and operated by one or more
  520  board-eligible or board-certified anesthesiologists,
  521  physiatrists, rheumatologists, or neurologists; or
  522         h. A The clinic is wholly owned and operated by a physician
  523  multispecialty practice where one or more board-eligible or
  524  board-certified medical specialists, who have also completed
  525  fellowships in pain medicine approved by the Accreditation
  526  Council for Graduate Medical Education or the American
  527  Osteopathic Association or who are also board-certified in pain
  528  medicine by the American Board of Pain Medicine or a board
  529  approved by the American Board of Medical Specialties, the
  530  American Association of Physician Specialists, or the American
  531  Osteopathic Association, perform interventional pain procedures
  532  of the type routinely billed using surgical codes.
  533         (g) The department may revoke the clinic’s certificate of
  534  registration and prohibit all physicians associated with that
  535  pain-management clinic from practicing at that clinic location
  536  based upon an annual inspection and evaluation of the factors
  537  described in subsection (4) (3).
  538         (2)CERTIFICATE OF EXEMPTION.—
  539         (a)A pain management clinic claiming an exemption from the
  540  registration requirements of subsection (1) must apply for a
  541  certificate of exemption on a form adopted in rule by the
  542  department. The form must require the applicant to provide:
  543         1.The name or names under which the applicant does
  544  business.
  545         2.The address at which the pain management clinic is
  546  located.
  547         3.The specific exemption the applicant is claiming with
  548  supporting documentation.
  549         4.Any other information deemed necessary by the
  550  department.
  551         (b)The department must approve or deny the certificate
  552  within 30 days after the receipt of a complete application.
  553         (c)The certificate of exemption must be renewed
  554  biennially, except that the department may issue the initial
  555  certificates of exemption for up to 3 years in order to stagger
  556  renewal dates.
  557         (d)A certificateholder must prominently display the
  558  certificate of exemption and make it available to the department
  559  or the board upon request.
  560         (e)A new certificate of exemption is required for a change
  561  of address and is not transferable. A certificate of exemption
  562  is valid only for the applicant, qualifying owners, licenses,
  563  registrations, certifications, and services provided under a
  564  specific statutory exemption and is valid only to the specific
  565  exemption claimed and granted.
  566         (f)A certificateholder must notify the department at least
  567  60 days before any anticipated relocation or name change of the
  568  pain management clinic or a change of ownership.
  569         (g)If a pain management clinic no longer qualifies for a
  570  certificate of exemption, the certificateholder must notify the
  571  department within 3 days after becoming aware that the clinic no
  572  longer qualifies for a certificate of exemption and register as
  573  a pain management clinic under subsection (1) or cease
  574  operations.
  575         (3)(2) PHYSICIAN RESPONSIBILITIES.—These responsibilities
  576  apply to any osteopathic physician who provides professional
  577  services in a pain-management clinic that is required to be
  578  registered in subsection (1).
  579         (a) An osteopathic physician may not practice medicine in a
  580  pain-management clinic, as described in subsection (5) (4), if
  581  the pain-management clinic is not registered with the department
  582  as required by this section. Any physician who qualifies to
  583  practice medicine in a pain-management clinic pursuant to rules
  584  adopted by the Board of Osteopathic Medicine as of July 1, 2012,
  585  may continue to practice medicine in a pain-management clinic as
  586  long as the physician continues to meet the qualifications set
  587  forth in the board rules. An osteopathic physician who violates
  588  this paragraph is subject to disciplinary action by his or her
  589  appropriate medical regulatory board.
  590         (4)(3) INSPECTION.—
  591         (a) The department shall inspect the pain-management clinic
  592  annually, including a review of the patient records, to ensure
  593  that it complies with this section and the rules of the Board of
  594  Osteopathic Medicine adopted pursuant to subsection (5) (4)
  595  unless the clinic is accredited by a nationally recognized
  596  accrediting agency approved by the Board of Osteopathic
  597  Medicine.
  598         (5)(4) RULEMAKING.—
  599         (a) The department shall adopt rules necessary to
  600  administer the registration, exemption, and inspection of pain
  601  management clinics which establish the specific requirements,
  602  procedures, forms, and fees.
  603         Section 7. Section 465.0155, Florida Statutes, is amended
  604  to read:
  605         465.0155 Standards of practice.—
  606         (1) Consistent with the provisions of this act, the board
  607  shall adopt by rule standards of practice relating to the
  608  practice of pharmacy which shall be binding on every state
  609  agency and shall be applied by such agencies when enforcing or
  610  implementing any authority granted by any applicable statute,
  611  rule, or regulation, whether federal or state.
  612         (2)(a)Before dispensing a controlled substance to a person
  613  not known to the pharmacist, the pharmacist must require the
  614  person purchasing, receiving, or otherwise acquiring the
  615  controlled substance to present valid photographic
  616  identification or other verification of his or her identity. If
  617  the person does not have proper identification, the pharmacist
  618  may verify the validity of the prescription and the identity of
  619  the patient with the prescriber or his or her authorized agent.
  620  Verification of health plan eligibility through a real-time
  621  inquiry or adjudication system is considered to be proper
  622  identification.
  623         (b)This subsection does not apply in an institutional
  624  setting or to a long-term care facility, including, but not
  625  limited to, an assisted living facility or a hospital to which
  626  patients are admitted.
  627         (c)As used in this subsection, the term “proper
  628  identification” means an identification that is issued by a
  629  state or the Federal Government containing the person’s
  630  photograph, printed name, and signature or a document considered
  631  acceptable under 8 C.F.R. s. 274a.2(b)(1)(v)(A) and (B).
  632         Section 8. Paragraph (b) of subsection (1) of section
  633  465.0276, Florida Statutes, is amended, and paragraph (d) is
  634  added to subsection (2) of that section, to read:
  635         465.0276 Dispensing practitioner.—
  636         (1)
  637         (b) A practitioner registered under this section may not
  638  dispense a controlled substance listed in Schedule II or
  639  Schedule III as provided in s. 893.03. This paragraph does not
  640  apply to:
  641         1. The dispensing of complimentary packages of medicinal
  642  drugs which are labeled as a drug sample or complimentary drug
  643  as defined in s. 499.028 to the practitioner’s own patients in
  644  the regular course of her or his practice without the payment of
  645  a fee or remuneration of any kind, whether direct or indirect,
  646  as provided in subsection (4).
  647         2. The dispensing of controlled substances in the health
  648  care system of the Department of Corrections.
  649         3. The dispensing of a controlled substance listed in
  650  Schedule II or Schedule III in connection with the performance
  651  of a surgical procedure.
  652         a.For an opioid drug listed as a Schedule II controlled
  653  substance in s. 893.03 or 21 U.S.C. s. 812:
  654         (I) For the treatment of acute pain, the amount dispensed
  655  pursuant to this subparagraph may not exceed a 3-day supply, or
  656  a 7-day supply if the criteria in s. 456.44(5)(a) are met.
  657         (II) For the treatment of pain other than acute pain, a
  658  practitioner must indicate “FOR NONACUTE PAIN” on a
  659  prescription.
  660         (III) For the treatment of pain related to a traumatic
  661  injury with an Injury Severity Score of 9 or greater, a
  662  practitioner must concurrently prescribe an emergency opioid
  663  antagonist, as defined in s. 381.887(1).
  664         b.For a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, the
  665  amount dispensed pursuant to this the subparagraph may not
  666  exceed a 14-day supply.
  667         c.The exception in this subparagraph exception does not
  668  allow for the dispensing of a controlled substance listed in
  669  Schedule II or Schedule III more than 14 days after the
  670  performance of the surgical procedure.
  671         d. For purposes of this subparagraph, the term “surgical
  672  procedure” means any procedure in any setting which involves, or
  673  reasonably should involve:
  674         (I)a. Perioperative medication and sedation that allows the
  675  patient to tolerate unpleasant procedures while maintaining
  676  adequate cardiorespiratory function and the ability to respond
  677  purposefully to verbal or tactile stimulation and makes intra-
  678  and postoperative monitoring necessary; or
  679         (II)b. The use of general anesthesia or major conduction
  680  anesthesia and preoperative sedation.
  681         4. The dispensing of a controlled substance listed in
  682  Schedule II or Schedule III pursuant to an approved clinical
  683  trial. For purposes of this subparagraph, the term “approved
  684  clinical trial” means a clinical research study or clinical
  685  investigation that, in whole or in part, is state or federally
  686  funded or is conducted under an investigational new drug
  687  application that is reviewed by the United States Food and Drug
  688  Administration.
  689         5. The dispensing of methadone in a facility licensed under
  690  s. 397.427 where medication-assisted treatment for opiate
  691  addiction is provided.
  692         6. The dispensing of a controlled substance listed in
  693  Schedule II or Schedule III to a patient of a facility licensed
  694  under part IV of chapter 400.
  695         7. The dispensing of controlled substances listed in
  696  Schedule II or Schedule III which have been approved by the
  697  United States Food and Drug Administration for the purpose of
  698  treating opiate addictions, including, but not limited to,
  699  buprenorphine and buprenorphine combination products, by a
  700  practitioner authorized under 21 U.S.C. s. 823, as amended, to
  701  the practitioner’s own patients for the medication-assisted
  702  treatment of opiate addiction.
  703         (2) A practitioner who dispenses medicinal drugs for human
  704  consumption for fee or remuneration of any kind, whether direct
  705  or indirect, must:
  706         (d)1.Before dispensing a controlled substance to a person
  707  not known to the dispenser, require the person purchasing,
  708  receiving, or otherwise acquiring the controlled substance to
  709  present valid photographic identification or other verification
  710  of his or her identity. If the person does not have proper
  711  identification, the dispenser may verify the validity of the
  712  prescription and the identity of the patient with the prescriber
  713  or his or her authorized agent. Verification of health plan
  714  eligibility through a real-time inquiry or adjudication system
  715  is considered to be proper identification.
  716         2.This paragraph does not apply in an institutional
  717  setting or to a long-term care facility, including, but not
  718  limited to, an assisted living facility or a hospital to which
  719  patients are admitted.
  720         3.As used in this paragraph, the term “proper
  721  identification” means an identification that is issued by a
  722  state or the Federal Government containing the person’s
  723  photograph, printed name, and signature or a document considered
  724  acceptable under 8 C.F.R. s. 274a.2(b)(1)(v)(A) and (B).
  725         Section 9. Subsection (5) is added to section 627.42392,
  726  Florida Statutes, to read:
  727         627.42392 Prior authorization.—
  728         (5) A health insurer may not require a prior authorization
  729  process or step therapy procedure or impose any other conditions
  730  on insureds as a prerequisite to receiving medication-assisted
  731  treatment (MAT) services, as defined in s. 397.311, to treat
  732  substance abuse disorders.
  733         Section 10. Paragraph (c) of subsection (1) and subsections
  734  (2) through (5) of section 893.03, Florida Statutes, are amended
  735  to read:
  736         893.03 Standards and schedules.—The substances enumerated
  737  in this section are controlled by this chapter. The controlled
  738  substances listed or to be listed in Schedules I, II, III, IV,
  739  and V are included by whatever official, common, usual,
  740  chemical, trade name, or class designated. The provisions of
  741  this section shall not be construed to include within any of the
  742  schedules contained in this section any excluded drugs listed
  743  within the purview of 21 C.F.R. s. 1308.22, styled “Excluded
  744  Substances”; 21 C.F.R. s. 1308.24, styled “Exempt Chemical
  745  Preparations”; 21 C.F.R. s. 1308.32, styled “Exempted
  746  Prescription Products”; or 21 C.F.R. s. 1308.34, styled “Exempt
  747  Anabolic Steroid Products.”
  748         (1) SCHEDULE I.—A substance in Schedule I has a high
  749  potential for abuse and has no currently accepted medical use in
  750  treatment in the United States and in its use under medical
  751  supervision does not meet accepted safety standards. The
  752  following substances are controlled in Schedule I:
  753         (c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in
  754  another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or
  755  preparation that contains any quantity of the following
  756  hallucinogenic substances or that contains any of their salts,
  757  isomers, including optical, positional, or geometric isomers,
  758  homologues, nitrogen-heterocyclic analogs, esters, ethers, and
  759  salts of isomers, homologues, nitrogen-heterocyclic analogs,
  760  esters, or ethers, if the existence of such salts, isomers, and
  761  salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical
  762  designation or class description:
  763         1. Alpha-Ethyltryptamine.
  764         2. 4-Methylaminorex (2-Amino-4-methyl-5-phenyl-2
  765  oxazoline).
  766         3. Aminorex (2-Amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline).
  767         4. DOB (4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine).
  768         5. 2C-B (4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
  769         6. Bufotenine.
  770         7. Cannabis.
  771         8. Cathinone.
  772         9. DET (Diethyltryptamine).
  773         10. 2,5-Dimethoxyamphetamine.
  774         11. DOET (4-Ethyl-2,5-Dimethoxyamphetamine).
  775         12. DMT (Dimethyltryptamine).
  776         13. PCE (N-Ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine)(Ethylamine analog
  777  of phencyclidine).
  778         14. JB-318 (N-Ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate).
  779         15. N-Ethylamphetamine.
  780         16. Fenethylline.
  781         17. 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-hydroxyamphetamine.
  782         18. Ibogaine.
  783         19. LSD (Lysergic acid diethylamide).
  784         20. Mescaline.
  785         21. Methcathinone.
  786         22. 5-Methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine.
  787         23. PMA (4-Methoxyamphetamine).
  788         24. PMMA (4-Methoxymethamphetamine).
  789         25. DOM (4-Methyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine).
  790         26. MDEA (3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine).
  791         27. MDA (3,4-Methylenedioxyamphetamine).
  792         28. JB-336 (N-Methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate).
  793         29. N,N-Dimethylamphetamine.
  794         30. Parahexyl.
  795         31. Peyote.
  796         32. PCPY (N-(1-Phenylcyclohexyl)-pyrrolidine) (Pyrrolidine
  797  analog of phencyclidine).
  798         33. Psilocybin.
  799         34. Psilocyn.
  800         35. Salvia divinorum, except for any drug product approved
  801  by the United States Food and Drug Administration which contains
  802  Salvia divinorum or its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and
  803  salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, if the existence of such
  804  isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the
  805  specific chemical designation.
  806         36. Salvinorin A, except for any drug product approved by
  807  the United States Food and Drug Administration which contains
  808  Salvinorin A or its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of
  809  isomers, esters, and ethers, if the existence of such isomers,
  810  esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific
  811  chemical designation.
  812         37. Xylazine.
  813         38. TCP (1-[1-(2-Thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine)
  814  (Thiophene analog of phencyclidine).
  815         39. 3,4,5-Trimethoxyamphetamine.
  816         40. Methylone (3,4-Methylenedioxymethcathinone).
  817         41. MDPV (3,4-Methylenedioxypyrovalerone).
  818         42. Methylmethcathinone.
  819         43. Methoxymethcathinone.
  820         44. Fluoromethcathinone.
  821         45. Methylethcathinone.
  822         46. CP 47,497 (2-(3-Hydroxycyclohexyl)-5-(2-methyloctan-2
  823  yl)phenol) and its dimethyloctyl (C8) homologue.
  824         47. HU-210 [(6aR,10aR)-9-(Hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-(2
  825  methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol].
  826         48. JWH-018 (1-Pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
  827         49. JWH-073 (1-Butyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
  828         50. JWH-200 (1-[2-(4-Morpholinyl)ethyl]-3-(1
  829  naphthoyl)indole).
  830         51. BZP (Benzylpiperazine).
  831         52. Fluorophenylpiperazine.
  832         53. Methylphenylpiperazine.
  833         54. Chlorophenylpiperazine.
  834         55. Methoxyphenylpiperazine.
  835         56. DBZP (1,4-Dibenzylpiperazine).
  836         57. TFMPP (Trifluoromethylphenylpiperazine).
  837         58. MBDB (Methylbenzodioxolylbutanamine) or (3,4
  838  Methylenedioxy-N-methylbutanamine).
  839         59. 5-Hydroxy-AMT (5-Hydroxy-alpha-methyltryptamine).
  840         60. 5-Hydroxy-N-methyltryptamine.
  841         61. 5-MeO-MiPT (5-Methoxy-N-methyl-N-isopropyltryptamine).
  842         62. 5-MeO-AMT (5-Methoxy-alpha-methyltryptamine).
  843         63. Methyltryptamine.
  844         64. 5-MeO-DMT (5-Methoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine).
  845         65. 5-Me-DMT (5-Methyl-N,N-dimethyltryptamine).
  846         66. Tyramine (4-Hydroxyphenethylamine).
  847         67. 5-MeO-DiPT (5-Methoxy-N,N-Diisopropyltryptamine).
  848         68. DiPT (N,N-Diisopropyltryptamine).
  849         69. DPT (N,N-Dipropyltryptamine).
  850         70. 4-Hydroxy-DiPT (4-Hydroxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine).
  851         71. 5-MeO-DALT (5-Methoxy-N,N-Diallyltryptamine).
  852         72. DOI (4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine).
  853         73. DOC (4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine).
  854         74. 2C-E (4-Ethyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
  855         75. 2C-T-4 (4-Isopropylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
  856         76. 2C-C (4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
  857         77. 2C-T (4-Methylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
  858         78. 2C-T-2 (4-Ethylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
  859         79. 2C-T-7 (4-(n)-Propylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
  860         80. 2C-I (4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
  861         81. Butylone (3,4-Methylenedioxy-alpha
  862  methylaminobutyrophenone).
  863         82. Ethcathinone.
  864         83. Ethylone (3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-ethylcathinone).
  865         84. Naphyrone (Naphthylpyrovalerone).
  866         85. Dimethylone (3,4-Methylenedioxy-N,N-dimethylcathinone).
  867         86. 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N,N-diethylcathinone.
  868         87. 3,4-Methylenedioxy-propiophenone.
  869         88. 3,4-Methylenedioxy-alpha-bromopropiophenone.
  870         89. 3,4-Methylenedioxy-propiophenone-2-oxime.
  871         90. 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-acetylcathinone.
  872         91. 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-acetylmethcathinone.
  873         92. 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-acetylethcathinone.
  874         93. Bromomethcathinone.
  875         94. Buphedrone (alpha-Methylamino-butyrophenone).
  876         95. Eutylone (3,4-Methylenedioxy-alpha
  877  ethylaminobutyrophenone).
  878         96. Dimethylcathinone.
  879         97. Dimethylmethcathinone.
  880         98. Pentylone (3,4-Methylenedioxy-alpha
  881  methylaminovalerophenone).
  882         99. MDPPP (3,4-Methylenedioxy-alpha
  883  pyrrolidinopropiophenone).
  884         100. MDPBP (3,4-Methylenedioxy-alpha
  885  pyrrolidinobutyrophenone).
  886         101. MOPPP (Methoxy-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone).
  887         102. MPHP (Methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinohexanophenone).
  888         103. BTCP (Benzothiophenylcyclohexylpiperidine) or BCP
  889  (Benocyclidine).
  890         104. F-MABP (Fluoromethylaminobutyrophenone).
  891         105. MeO-PBP (Methoxypyrrolidinobutyrophenone).
  892         106. Et-PBP (Ethylpyrrolidinobutyrophenone).
  893         107. 3-Me-4-MeO-MCAT (3-Methyl-4-Methoxymethcathinone).
  894         108. Me-EABP (Methylethylaminobutyrophenone).
  895         109. Etizolam.
  896         110. PPP (Pyrrolidinopropiophenone).
  897         111. PBP (Pyrrolidinobutyrophenone).
  898         112. PVP (Pyrrolidinovalerophenone) or
  899  (Pyrrolidinopentiophenone).
  900         113. MPPP (Methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone).
  901         114. JWH-007 (1-Pentyl-2-methyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
  902         115. JWH-015 (1-Propyl-2-methyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
  903         116. JWH-019 (1-Hexyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
  904         117. JWH-020 (1-Heptyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
  905         118. JWH-072 (1-Propyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
  906         119. JWH-081 (1-Pentyl-3-(4-methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole).
  907         120. JWH-122 (1-Pentyl-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole).
  908         121. JWH-133 ((6aR,10aR)-6,6,9-Trimethyl-3-(2-methylpentan
  909  2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromene).
  910         122. JWH-175 (1-Pentyl-3-(1-naphthylmethyl)indole).
  911         123. JWH-201 (1-Pentyl-3-(4-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole).
  912         124. JWH-203 (1-Pentyl-3-(2-chlorophenylacetyl)indole).
  913         125. JWH-210 (1-Pentyl-3-(4-ethyl-1-naphthoyl)indole).
  914         126. JWH-250 (1-Pentyl-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole).
  915         127. JWH-251 (1-Pentyl-3-(2-methylphenylacetyl)indole).
  916         128. JWH-302 (1-Pentyl-3-(3-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole).
  917         129. JWH-398 (1-Pentyl-3-(4-chloro-1-naphthoyl)indole).
  918         130. HU-211 ((6aS,10aS)-9-(Hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3
  919  (2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1
  920  ol).
  921         131. HU-308 ([(1R,2R,5R)-2-[2,6-Dimethoxy-4-(2-methyloctan
  922  2-yl)phenyl]-7,7-dimethyl-4-bicyclo[3.1.1]hept-3-enyl]
  923  methanol).
  924         132. HU-331 (3-Hydroxy-2-[(1R,6R)-3-methyl-6-(1
  925  methylethenyl)-2-cyclohexen-1-yl]-5-pentyl-2,5-cyclohexadiene
  926  1,4-dione).
  927         133. CB-13 (4-Pentyloxy-1-(1-naphthoyl)naphthalene).
  928         134. CB-25 (N-Cyclopropyl-11-(3-hydroxy-5-pentylphenoxy)
  929  undecanamide).
  930         135. CB-52 (N-Cyclopropyl-11-(2-hexyl-5-hydroxyphenoxy)
  931  undecanamide).
  932         136. CP 55,940 (2-[3-Hydroxy-6-propanol-cyclohexyl]-5-(2
  933  methyloctan-2-yl)phenol).
  934         137. AM-694 (1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole).
  935         138. AM-2201 (1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
  936         139. RCS-4 (1-Pentyl-3-(4-methoxybenzoyl)indole).
  937         140. RCS-8 (1-(2-Cyclohexylethyl)-3-(2
  938  methoxyphenylacetyl)indole).
  939         141. WIN55,212-2 ((R)-(+)-[2,3-Dihydro-5-methyl-3-(4
  940  morpholinylmethyl)pyrrolo[1,2,3-de]-1,4-benzoxazin-6-yl]-1
  941  naphthalenylmethanone).
  942         142. WIN55,212-3 ([(3S)-2,3-Dihydro-5-methyl-3-(4
  943  morpholinylmethyl)pyrrolo[1,2,3-de]-1,4-benzoxazin-6-yl]-1
  944  naphthalenylmethanone).
  945         143. Pentedrone (alpha-Methylaminovalerophenone).
  946         144. Fluoroamphetamine.
  947         145. Fluoromethamphetamine.
  948         146. Methoxetamine.
  949         147. Methiopropamine.
  950         148. Methylbuphedrone (Methyl-alpha
  951  methylaminobutyrophenone).
  952         149. APB ((2-Aminopropyl)benzofuran).
  953         150. APDB ((2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran).
  954         151. UR-144 (1-Pentyl-3-(2,2,3,3
  955  tetramethylcyclopropanoyl)indole).
  956         152. XLR11 (1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-3-(2,2,3,3
  957  tetramethylcyclopropanoyl)indole).
  958         153. Chloro UR-144 (1-(Chloropentyl)-3-(2,2,3,3
  959  tetramethylcyclopropanoyl)indole).
  960         154. AKB48 (N-Adamant-1-yl 1-pentylindazole-3-carboxamide).
  961         155. AM-2233(1-[(N-Methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl]-3-(2
  962  iodobenzoyl)indole).
  963         156. STS-135 (N-Adamant-1-yl 1-(5-fluoropentyl)indole-3
  964  carboxamide).
  965         157. URB-597 ((3′-(Aminocarbonyl)[1,1′-biphenyl]-3-yl)
  966  cyclohexylcarbamate).
  967         158. URB-602 ([1,1′-Biphenyl]-3-yl-carbamic acid,
  968  cyclohexyl ester).
  969         159. URB-754 (6-Methyl-2-[(4-methylphenyl)amino]-1
  970  benzoxazin-4-one).
  971         160. 2C-D (4-Methyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
  972         161. 2C-H (2,5-Dimethoxyphenethylamine).
  973         162. 2C-N (4-Nitro-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
  974         163. 2C-P (4-(n)-Propyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
  975         164. 25I-NBOMe (4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2
  976  methoxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
  977         165. MDMA (3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine).
  978         166. PB-22 (8-Quinolinyl 1-pentylindole-3-carboxylate).
  979         167. Fluoro PB-22 (8-Quinolinyl 1-(fluoropentyl)indole-3
  980  carboxylate).
  981         168. BB-22 (8-Quinolinyl 1-(cyclohexylmethyl)indole-3
  982  carboxylate).
  983         169. Fluoro AKB48 (N-Adamant-1-yl 1-(fluoropentyl)indazole
  984  3-carboxamide).
  985         170. AB-PINACA (N-(1-Amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1
  986  pentylindazole-3-carboxamide).
  987         171. AB-FUBINACA (N-(1-Amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1
  988  (4-fluorobenzyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
  989         172. ADB-PINACA (N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)
  990  1-pentylindazole-3-carboxamide).
  991         173. Fluoro ADBICA (N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2
  992  yl)-1-(fluoropentyl)indole-3-carboxamide).
  993         174. 25B-NBOMe (4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2
  994  methoxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
  995         175. 25C-NBOMe (4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2
  996  methoxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
  997         176. AB-CHMINACA (N-(1-Amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1
  998  (cyclohexylmethyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
  999         177. FUB-PB-22 (8-Quinolinyl 1-(4-fluorobenzyl)indole-3
 1000  carboxylate).
 1001         178. Fluoro-NNEI (N-Naphthalen-1-yl 1-(fluoropentyl)indole
 1002  3-carboxamide).
 1003         179. Fluoro-AMB (N-(1-Methoxy-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1
 1004  (fluoropentyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
 1005         180. THJ-2201 (1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indazole).
 1006         181. AM-855 ((4aR,12bR)-8-Hexyl-2,5,5-trimethyl
 1007  1,4,4a,8,9,10,11,12b-octahydronaphtho[3,2-c]isochromen-12-ol).
 1008         182. AM-905 ((6aR,9R,10aR)-3-[(E)-Hept-1-enyl]-9
 1009  (hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-6a,7,8,9,10,10a
 1010  hexahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol).
 1011         183. AM-906 ((6aR,9R,10aR)-3-[(Z)-Hept-1-enyl]-9
 1012  (hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-6a,7,8,9,10,10a
 1013  hexahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol).
 1014         184. AM-2389 ((6aR,9R,10aR)-3-(1-Hexyl-cyclobut-1-yl)
 1015  6a,7,8,9,10,10a-hexahydro-6,6-dimethyl-6H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran-1,9
 1016  diol).
 1017         185. HU-243 ((6aR,8S,9S,10aR)-9-(Hydroxymethyl)-6,6
 1018  dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-8,9-ditritio-7,8,10,10a
 1019  tetrahydro-6aH-benzo[c]chromen-1-ol).
 1020         186. HU-336 ((6aR,10aR)-6,6,9-Trimethyl-3-pentyl
 1021  6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydro-1H-benzo[c]chromene-1,4(6H)-dione).
 1022         187. MAPB ((2-Methylaminopropyl)benzofuran).
 1023         188. 5-IT (2-(1H-Indol-5-yl)-1-methyl-ethylamine).
 1024         189. 6-IT (2-(1H-Indol-6-yl)-1-methyl-ethylamine).
 1025         190. Synthetic Cannabinoids.—Unless specifically excepted
 1026  or unless listed in another schedule or contained within a
 1027  pharmaceutical product approved by the United States Food and
 1028  Drug Administration, any material, compound, mixture, or
 1029  preparation that contains any quantity of a synthetic
 1030  cannabinoid found to be in any of the following chemical class
 1031  descriptions, or homologues, nitrogen-heterocyclic analogs,
 1032  isomers (including optical, positional, or geometric), esters,
 1033  ethers, salts, and salts of homologues, nitrogen-heterocyclic
 1034  analogs, isomers, esters, or ethers, whenever the existence of
 1035  such homologues, nitrogen-heterocyclic analogs, isomers, esters,
 1036  ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, or ethers is
 1037  possible within the specific chemical class or designation.
 1038  Since nomenclature of these synthetically produced cannabinoids
 1039  is not internationally standardized and may continually evolve,
 1040  these structures or the compounds of these structures shall be
 1041  included under this subparagraph, regardless of their specific
 1042  numerical designation of atomic positions covered, if it can be
 1043  determined through a recognized method of scientific testing or
 1044  analysis that the substance contains properties that fit within
 1045  one or more of the following categories:
 1046         a. Tetrahydrocannabinols.—Any tetrahydrocannabinols
 1047  naturally contained in a plant of the genus Cannabis, the
 1048  synthetic equivalents of the substances contained in the plant
 1049  or in the resinous extracts of the genus Cannabis, or synthetic
 1050  substances, derivatives, and their isomers with similar chemical
 1051  structure and pharmacological activity, including, but not
 1052  limited to, Delta 9 tetrahydrocannabinols and their optical
 1053  isomers, Delta 8 tetrahydrocannabinols and their optical
 1054  isomers, Delta 6a,10a tetrahydrocannabinols and their optical
 1055  isomers, or any compound containing a tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromene
 1056  structure with substitution at either or both the 3-position or
 1057  9-position, with or without substitution at the 1-position with
 1058  hydroxyl or alkoxy groups, including, but not limited to:
 1059         (I) Tetrahydrocannabinol.
 1060         (II) HU-210 ((6aR,10aR)-9-(Hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3
 1061  (2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1
 1062  ol).
 1063         (III) HU-211 ((6aS,10aS)-9-(Hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3
 1064  (2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1
 1065  ol).
 1066         (IV) JWH-051 ((6aR,10aR)-9-(Hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3
 1067  (2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromene).
 1068         (V) JWH-133 ((6aR,10aR)-6,6,9-Trimethyl-3-(2-methylpentan
 1069  2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromene).
 1070         (VI) JWH-057 ((6aR,10aR)-6,6,9-Trimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan
 1071  2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromene).
 1072         (VII) JWH-359 ((6aR,10aR)-1-Methoxy-6,6,9-trimethyl-3-(2,3
 1073  dimethylpentan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromene).
 1074         (VIII) AM-087 ((6aR,10aR)-3-(2-Methyl-6-bromohex-2-yl)
 1075  6,6,9-trimethyl-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol).
 1076         (IX) AM-411 ((6aR,10aR)-3-(1-Adamantyl)-6,6,9-trimethyl
 1077  6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol).
 1078         (X) Parahexyl.
 1079         b. Naphthoylindoles, Naphthoylindazoles,
 1080  Naphthoylcarbazoles, Naphthylmethylindoles,
 1081  Naphthylmethylindazoles, and Naphthylmethylcarbazoles.—Any
 1082  compound containing a naphthoylindole, naphthoylindazole,
 1083  naphthoylcarbazole, naphthylmethylindole,
 1084  naphthylmethylindazole, or naphthylmethylcarbazole structure,
 1085  with or without substitution on the indole, indazole, or
 1086  carbazole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the
 1087  naphthyl ring to any extent, including, but not limited to:
 1088         (I) JWH-007 (1-Pentyl-2-methyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1089         (II) JWH-011 (1-(1-Methylhexyl)-2-methyl-3-(1
 1090  naphthoyl)indole).
 1091         (III) JWH-015 (1-Propyl-2-methyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1092         (IV) JWH-016 (1-Butyl-2-methyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1093         (V) JWH-018 (1-Pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1094         (VI) JWH-019 (1-Hexyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1095         (VII) JWH-020 (1-Heptyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1096         (VIII) JWH-022 (1-(4-Pentenyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1097         (IX) JWH-071 (1-Ethyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1098         (X) JWH-072 (1-Propyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1099         (XI) JWH-073 (1-Butyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1100         (XII) JWH-080 (1-Butyl-3-(4-methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1101         (XIII) JWH-081 (1-Pentyl-3-(4-methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1102         (XIV) JWH-098 (1-Pentyl-2-methyl-3-(4-methoxy-1
 1103  naphthoyl)indole).
 1104         (XV) JWH-116 (1-Pentyl-2-ethyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1105         (XVI) JWH-122 (1-Pentyl-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1106         (XVII) JWH-149 (1-Pentyl-2-methyl-3-(4-methyl-1
 1107  naphthoyl)indole).
 1108         (XVIII) JWH-164 (1-Pentyl-3-(7-methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1109         (XIX) JWH-175 (1-Pentyl-3-(1-naphthylmethyl)indole).
 1110         (XX) JWH-180 (1-Propyl-3-(4-propyl-1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1111         (XXI) JWH-182 (1-Pentyl-3-(4-propyl-1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1112         (XXII) JWH-184 (1-Pentyl-3-[(4-methyl)-1
 1113  naphthylmethyl]indole).
 1114         (XXIII) JWH-193 (1-[2-(4-Morpholinyl)ethyl]-3-(4-methyl-1
 1115  naphthoyl)indole).
 1116         (XXIV) JWH-198 (1-[2-(4-Morpholinyl)ethyl]-3-(4-methoxy-1
 1117  naphthoyl)indole).
 1118         (XXV) JWH-200 (1-[2-(4-Morpholinyl)ethyl]-3-(1
 1119  naphthoyl)indole).
 1120         (XXVI) JWH-210 (1-Pentyl-3-(4-ethyl-1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1121         (XXVII) JWH-387 (1-Pentyl-3-(4-bromo-1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1122         (XXVIII) JWH-398 (1-Pentyl-3-(4-chloro-1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1123         (XXIX) JWH-412 (1-Pentyl-3-(4-fluoro-1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1124         (XXX) JWH-424 (1-Pentyl-3-(8-bromo-1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1125         (XXXI) AM-1220 (1-[(1-Methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl]-3-(1
 1126  naphthoyl)indole).
 1127         (XXXII) AM-1235 (1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-6-nitro-3-(1
 1128  naphthoyl)indole).
 1129         (XXXIII) AM-2201 (1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-3-(1
 1130  naphthoyl)indole).
 1131         (XXXIV) Chloro JWH-018 (1-(Chloropentyl)-3-(1
 1132  naphthoyl)indole).
 1133         (XXXV) Bromo JWH-018 (1-(Bromopentyl)-3-(1
 1134  naphthoyl)indole).
 1135         (XXXVI) AM-2232 (1-(4-Cyanobutyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole).
 1136         (XXXVII) THJ-2201 (1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-3-(1
 1137  naphthoyl)indazole).
 1138         (XXXVIII) MAM-2201 (1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-3-(4-methyl-1
 1139  naphthoyl)indole).
 1140         (XXXIX) EAM-2201 (1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-3-(4-ethyl-1
 1141  naphthoyl)indole).
 1142         (XL) EG-018 (9-Pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)carbazole).
 1143         (XLI) EG-2201 (9-(5-Fluoropentyl)-3-(1
 1144  naphthoyl)carbazole).
 1145         c. Naphthoylpyrroles.—Any compound containing a
 1146  naphthoylpyrrole structure, with or without substitution on the
 1147  pyrrole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the
 1148  naphthyl ring to any extent, including, but not limited to:
 1149         (I) JWH-030 (1-Pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole).
 1150         (II) JWH-031 (1-Hexyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole).
 1151         (III) JWH-145 (1-Pentyl-5-phenyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole).
 1152         (IV) JWH-146 (1-Heptyl-5-phenyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole).
 1153         (V) JWH-147 (1-Hexyl-5-phenyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole).
 1154         (VI) JWH-307 (1-Pentyl-5-(2-fluorophenyl)-3-(1
 1155  naphthoyl)pyrrole).
 1156         (VII) JWH-309 (1-Pentyl-5-(1-naphthalenyl)-3-(1
 1157  naphthoyl)pyrrole).
 1158         (VIII) JWH-368 (1-Pentyl-5-(3-fluorophenyl)-3-(1
 1159  naphthoyl)pyrrole).
 1160         (IX) JWH-369 (1-Pentyl-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-3-(1
 1161  naphthoyl)pyrrole).
 1162         (X) JWH-370 (1-Pentyl-5-(2-methylphenyl)-3-(1
 1163  naphthoyl)pyrrole).
 1164         d. Naphthylmethylenindenes.—Any compound containing a
 1165  naphthylmethylenindene structure, with or without substitution
 1166  at the 3-position of the indene ring to any extent, whether or
 1167  not substituted on the naphthyl ring to any extent, including,
 1168  but not limited to, JWH-176 (3-Pentyl-1
 1169  (naphthylmethylene)indene).
 1170         e. Phenylacetylindoles and Phenylacetylindazoles.—Any
 1171  compound containing a phenylacetylindole or phenylacetylindazole
 1172  structure, with or without substitution on the indole or
 1173  indazole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the
 1174  phenyl ring to any extent, including, but not limited to:
 1175         (I) JWH-167 (1-Pentyl-3-(phenylacetyl)indole).
 1176         (II) JWH-201 (1-Pentyl-3-(4-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole).
 1177         (III) JWH-203 (1-Pentyl-3-(2-chlorophenylacetyl)indole).
 1178         (IV) JWH-250 (1-Pentyl-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole).
 1179         (V) JWH-251 (1-Pentyl-3-(2-methylphenylacetyl)indole).
 1180         (VI) JWH-302 (1-Pentyl-3-(3-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole).
 1181         (VII) Cannabipiperidiethanone.
 1182         (VIII) RCS-8 (1-(2-Cyclohexylethyl)-3-(2
 1183  methoxyphenylacetyl)indole).
 1184         f. Cyclohexylphenols.—Any compound containing a
 1185  cyclohexylphenol structure, with or without substitution at the
 1186  5-position of the phenolic ring to any extent, whether or not
 1187  substituted on the cyclohexyl ring to any extent, including, but
 1188  not limited to:
 1189         (I) CP 47,497 (2-(3-Hydroxycyclohexyl)-5-(2-methyloctan-2
 1190  yl)phenol).
 1191         (II) Cannabicyclohexanol (CP 47,497 dimethyloctyl (C8)
 1192  homologue).
 1193         (III) CP-55,940 (2-(3-Hydroxy-6-propanol-cyclohexyl)-5-(2
 1194  methyloctan-2-yl)phenol).
 1195         g. Benzoylindoles and Benzoylindazoles.—Any compound
 1196  containing a benzoylindole or benzoylindazole structure, with or
 1197  without substitution on the indole or indazole ring to any
 1198  extent, whether or not substituted on the phenyl ring to any
 1199  extent, including, but not limited to:
 1200         (I) AM-679 (1-Pentyl-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole).
 1201         (II) AM-694 (1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole).
 1202         (III) AM-1241 (1-[(N-Methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl]-3-(2
 1203  iodo-5-nitrobenzoyl)indole).
 1204         (IV) Pravadoline (1-[2-(4-Morpholinyl)ethyl]-2-methyl-3-(4
 1205  methoxybenzoyl)indole).
 1206         (V) AM-2233 (1-[(N-Methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl]-3-(2
 1207  iodobenzoyl)indole).
 1208         (VI) RCS-4 (1-Pentyl-3-(4-methoxybenzoyl)indole).
 1209         (VII) RCS-4 C4 homologue (1-Butyl-3-(4
 1210  methoxybenzoyl)indole).
 1211         (VIII) AM-630 (1-[2-(4-Morpholinyl)ethyl]-2-methyl-6-iodo
 1212  3-(4-methoxybenzoyl)indole).
 1213         h. Tetramethylcyclopropanoylindoles and
 1214  Tetramethylcyclopropanoylindazoles.—Any compound containing a
 1215  tetramethylcyclopropanoylindole or
 1216  tetramethylcyclopropanoylindazole structure, with or without
 1217  substitution on the indole or indazole ring to any extent,
 1218  whether or not substituted on the tetramethylcyclopropyl group
 1219  to any extent, including, but not limited to:
 1220         (I) UR-144 (1-Pentyl-3-(2,2,3,3
 1221  tetramethylcyclopropanoyl)indole).
 1222         (II) XLR11 (1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-3-(2,2,3,3
 1223  tetramethylcyclopropanoyl)indole).
 1224         (III) Chloro UR-144 (1-(Chloropentyl)-3-(2,2,3,3
 1225  tetramethylcyclopropanoyl)indole).
 1226         (IV) A-796,260 (1-[2-(4-Morpholinyl)ethyl]-3-(2,2,3,3
 1227  tetramethylcyclopropanoyl)indole).
 1228         (V) A-834,735 (1-[4-(Tetrahydropyranyl)methyl]-3-(2,2,3,3
 1229  tetramethylcyclopropanoyl)indole).
 1230         (VI) M-144 (1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-2-methyl-3-(2,2,3,3
 1231  tetramethylcyclopropanoyl)indole).
 1232         (VII) FUB-144 (1-(4-Fluorobenzyl)-3-(2,2,3,3
 1233  tetramethylcyclopropanoyl)indole).
 1234         (VIII) FAB-144 (1-(5-Fluoropentyl)-3-(2,2,3,3
 1235  tetramethylcyclopropanoyl)indazole).
 1236         (IX) XLR12 (1-(4,4,4-Trifluorobutyl)-3-(2,2,3,3
 1237  tetramethylcyclopropanoyl)indole).
 1238         (X) AB-005 (1-[(1-Methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl]-3-(2,2,3,3
 1239  tetramethylcyclopropanoyl)indole).
 1240         i. Adamantoylindoles, Adamantoylindazoles, Adamantylindole
 1241  carboxamides, and Adamantylindazole carboxamides.—Any compound
 1242  containing an adamantoyl indole, adamantoyl indazole, adamantyl
 1243  indole carboxamide, or adamantyl indazole carboxamide structure,
 1244  with or without substitution on the indole or indazole ring to
 1245  any extent, whether or not substituted on the adamantyl ring to
 1246  any extent, including, but not limited to:
 1247         (I) AKB48 (N-Adamant-1-yl 1-pentylindazole-3-carboxamide).
 1248         (II) Fluoro AKB48 (N-Adamant-1-yl 1-(fluoropentyl)indazole
 1249  3-carboxamide).
 1250         (III) STS-135 (N-Adamant-1-yl 1-(5-fluoropentyl)indole-3
 1251  carboxamide).
 1252         (IV) AM-1248 (1-(1-Methylpiperidine)methyl-3-(1
 1253  adamantoyl)indole).
 1254         (V) AB-001 (1-Pentyl-3-(1-adamantoyl)indole).
 1255         (VI) APICA (N-Adamant-1-yl 1-pentylindole-3-carboxamide).
 1256         (VII) Fluoro AB-001 (1-(Fluoropentyl)-3-(1
 1257  adamantoyl)indole).
 1258         j. Quinolinylindolecarboxylates,
 1259  Quinolinylindazolecarboxylates, Quinolinylindolecarboxamides,
 1260  and Quinolinylindazolecarboxamides.—Any compound containing a
 1261  quinolinylindole carboxylate, quinolinylindazole carboxylate,
 1262  isoquinolinylindole carboxylate, isoquinolinylindazole
 1263  carboxylate, quinolinylindole carboxamide, quinolinylindazole
 1264  carboxamide, isoquinolinylindole carboxamide, or
 1265  isoquinolinylindazole carboxamide structure, with or without
 1266  substitution on the indole or indazole ring to any extent,
 1267  whether or not substituted on the quinoline or isoquinoline ring
 1268  to any extent, including, but not limited to:
 1269         (I) PB-22 (8-Quinolinyl 1-pentylindole-3-carboxylate).
 1270         (II) Fluoro PB-22 (8-Quinolinyl 1-(fluoropentyl)indole-3
 1271  carboxylate).
 1272         (III) BB-22 (8-Quinolinyl 1-(cyclohexylmethyl)indole-3
 1273  carboxylate).
 1274         (IV) FUB-PB-22 (8-Quinolinyl 1-(4-fluorobenzyl)indole-3
 1275  carboxylate).
 1276         (V) NPB-22 (8-Quinolinyl 1-pentylindazole-3-carboxylate).
 1277         (VI) Fluoro NPB-22 (8-Quinolinyl 1-(fluoropentyl)indazole
 1278  3-carboxylate).
 1279         (VII) FUB-NPB-22 (8-Quinolinyl 1-(4-fluorobenzyl)indazole
 1280  3-carboxylate).
 1281         (VIII) THJ (8-Quinolinyl 1-pentylindazole-3-carboxamide).
 1282         (IX) Fluoro THJ (8-Quinolinyl 1-(fluoropentyl)indazole-3
 1283  carboxamide).
 1284         k. Naphthylindolecarboxylates and
 1285  Naphthylindazolecarboxylates.—Any compound containing a
 1286  naphthylindole carboxylate or naphthylindazole carboxylate
 1287  structure, with or without substitution on the indole or
 1288  indazole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the
 1289  naphthyl ring to any extent, including, but not limited to:
 1290         (I) NM-2201 (1-Naphthalenyl 1-(5-fluoropentyl)indole-3
 1291  carboxylate).
 1292         (II) SDB-005 (1-Naphthalenyl 1-pentylindazole-3
 1293  carboxylate).
 1294         (III) Fluoro SDB-005 (1-Naphthalenyl 1
 1295  (fluoropentyl)indazole-3-carboxylate).
 1296         (IV) FDU-PB-22 (1-Naphthalenyl 1-(4-fluorobenzyl)indole-3
 1297  carboxylate).
 1298         (V) 3-CAF (2-Naphthalenyl 1-(2-fluorophenyl)indazole-3
 1299  carboxylate).
 1300         l. Naphthylindole carboxamides and Naphthylindazole
 1301  carboxamides.—Any compound containing a naphthylindole
 1302  carboxamide or naphthylindazole carboxamide structure, with or
 1303  without substitution on the indole or indazole ring to any
 1304  extent, whether or not substituted on the naphthyl ring to any
 1305  extent, including, but not limited to:
 1306         (I) NNEI (N-Naphthalen-1-yl 1-pentylindole-3-carboxamide).
 1307         (II) Fluoro-NNEI (N-Naphthalen-1-yl 1-(fluoropentyl)indole
 1308  3-carboxamide).
 1309         (III) Chloro-NNEI (N-Naphthalen-1-yl 1
 1310  (chloropentyl)indole-3-carboxamide).
 1311         (IV) MN-18 (N-Naphthalen-1-yl 1-pentylindazole-3
 1312  carboxamide).
 1313         (V) Fluoro MN-18 (N-Naphthalen-1-yl 1
 1314  (fluoropentyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
 1315         m. Alkylcarbonyl indole carboxamides, Alkylcarbonyl
 1316  indazole carboxamides, Alkylcarbonyl indole carboxylates, and
 1317  Alkylcarbonyl indazole carboxylates.—Any compound containing an
 1318  alkylcarbonyl group, including 1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl,
 1319  1-methoxy-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl, 1-amino-1-oxo-3
 1320  phenylpropan-2-yl, 1-methoxy-1-oxo-3-phenylpropan-2-yl, with an
 1321  indole carboxamide, indazole carboxamide, indole carboxylate, or
 1322  indazole carboxylate, with or without substitution on the indole
 1323  or indazole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on
 1324  the alkylcarbonyl group to any extent, including, but not
 1325  limited to:
 1326         (I) ADBICA, (N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1
 1327  pentylindole-3-carboxamide).
 1328         (II) Fluoro ADBICA (N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2
 1329  yl)-1-(fluoropentyl)indole-3-carboxamide).
 1330         (III) Fluoro ABICA (N-(1-Amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1
 1331  (fluoropentyl)indole-3-carboxamide).
 1332         (IV) AB-PINACA (N-(1-Amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1
 1333  pentylindazole-3-carboxamide).
 1334         (V) Fluoro AB-PINACA (N-(1-Amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)
 1335  1-(fluoropentyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
 1336         (VI) ADB-PINACA (N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)
 1337  1-pentylindazole-3-carboxamide).
 1338         (VII) Fluoro ADB-PINACA (N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1
 1339  oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(fluoropentyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
 1340         (VIII) AB-FUBINACA (N-(1-Amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1
 1341  (4-fluorobenzyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
 1342         (IX) ADB-FUBINACA (N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2
 1343  yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
 1344         (X) AB-CHMINACA (N-(1-Amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1
 1345  (cyclohexylmethyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
 1346         (XI) MA-CHMINACA (N-(1-Methoxy-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1
 1347  (cyclohexylmethyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
 1348         (XII) MAB-CHMINACA (N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2
 1349  yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
 1350         (XIII) AMB (N-(1-Methoxy-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1
 1351  pentylindazole-3-carboxamide).
 1352         (XIV) Fluoro-AMB (N-(1-Methoxy-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1
 1353  (fluoropentyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
 1354         (XV) FUB-AMB (N-(1-Methoxy-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4
 1355  fluorobenzyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
 1356         (XVI) MDMB-CHMINACA (N-(1-Methoxy-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan
 1357  2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
 1358         (XVII) MDMB-FUBINACA (N-(1-Methoxy-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan
 1359  2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
 1360         (XVIII) MDMB-CHMICA (N-(1-Methoxy-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan
 1361  2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)indole-3-carboxamide).
 1362         (XIX) PX-1 (N-(1-Amino-1-oxo-3-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1-(5
 1363  fluoropentyl)indole-3-carboxamide).
 1364         (XX) PX-2 (N-(1-Amino-1-oxo-3-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1-(5
 1365  fluoropentyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
 1366         (XXI) PX-3 (N-(1-Amino-1-oxo-3-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1
 1367  (cyclohexylmethyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
 1368         (XXII) PX-4 (N-(1-Amino-1-oxo-3-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1-(4
 1369  fluorobenzyl)indazole-3-carboxamide).
 1370         (XXIII) MO-CHMINACA (N-(1-Methoxy-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan
 1371  2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)indazole-3-carboxylate).
 1372         n. Cumylindolecarboxamides and Cumylindazolecarboxamides.
 1373  Any compound containing a N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl) indole
 1374  carboxamide or N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl) indazole carboxamide
 1375  structure, with or without substitution on the indole or
 1376  indazole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted on the
 1377  phenyl ring of the cumyl group to any extent, including, but not
 1378  limited to:
 1379         (I) CUMYL-PICA (N-(2-Phenylpropan-2-yl)-1-pentylindole-3
 1380  carboxamide).
 1381         (II) Fluoro CUMYL-PICA (N-(2-Phenylpropan-2-yl)-1
 1382  (fluoropentyl)indole-3-carboxamide).
 1383         o. Other Synthetic Cannabinoids.—Any material, compound,
 1384  mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of a
 1385  Synthetic Cannabinoid, as described in sub-subparagraphs a.-n.:
 1386         (I) With or without modification or replacement of a
 1387  carbonyl, carboxamide, alkylene, alkyl, or carboxylate linkage
 1388  between either two core rings, or linkage between a core ring
 1389  and group structure, with or without the addition of a carbon or
 1390  replacement of a carbon;
 1391         (II) With or without replacement of a core ring or group
 1392  structure, whether or not substituted on the ring or group
 1393  structures to any extent; and
 1394         (III) Is a cannabinoid receptor agonist, unless
 1395  specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule or
 1396  contained within a pharmaceutical product approved by the United
 1397  States Food and Drug Administration.
 1398         191. Substituted Cathinones.—Unless specifically excepted,
 1399  listed in another schedule, or contained within a pharmaceutical
 1400  product approved by the United States Food and Drug
 1401  Administration, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation,
 1402  including its salts, isomers, esters, or ethers, and salts of
 1403  isomers, esters, or ethers, whenever the existence of such salts
 1404  is possible within any of the following specific chemical
 1405  designations:
 1406         a. Any compound containing a 2-amino-1-phenyl-1-propanone
 1407  structure;
 1408         b. Any compound containing a 2-amino-1-naphthyl-1-propanone
 1409  structure; or
 1410         c. Any compound containing a 2-amino-1-thiophenyl-1
 1411  propanone structure,
 1412  
 1413  whether or not the compound is further modified:
 1414         (I) With or without substitution on the ring system to any
 1415  extent with alkyl, alkylthio, thio, fused alkylenedioxy, alkoxy,
 1416  haloalkyl, hydroxyl, nitro, fused furan, fused benzofuran, fused
 1417  dihydrofuran, fused tetrahydropyran, fused alkyl ring, or halide
 1418  substituents;
 1419         (II) With or without substitution at the 3-propanone
 1420  position with an alkyl substituent or removal of the methyl
 1421  group at the 3-propanone position;
 1422         (III) With or without substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen
 1423  atom with alkyl, dialkyl, acetyl, or benzyl groups, whether or
 1424  not further substituted in the ring system; or
 1425         (IV) With or without inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom
 1426  in a cyclic structure, including, but not limited to:
 1427         (A) Methcathinone.
 1428         (B) Ethcathinone.
 1429         (C) Methylone (3,4-Methylenedioxymethcathinone).
 1430         (D) 2,3-Methylenedioxymethcathinone.
 1431         (E) MDPV (3,4-Methylenedioxypyrovalerone).
 1432         (F) Methylmethcathinone.
 1433         (G) Methoxymethcathinone.
 1434         (H) Fluoromethcathinone.
 1435         (I) Methylethcathinone.
 1436         (J) Butylone (3,4-Methylenedioxy-alpha
 1437  methylaminobutyrophenone).
 1438         (K) Ethylone (3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-ethylcathinone).
 1439         (L) BMDP (3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-benzylcathinone).
 1440         (M) Naphyrone (Naphthylpyrovalerone).
 1441         (N) Bromomethcathinone.
 1442         (O) Buphedrone (alpha-Methylaminobutyrophenone).
 1443         (P) Eutylone (3,4-Methylenedioxy-alpha
 1444  ethylaminobutyrophenone).
 1445         (Q) Dimethylcathinone.
 1446         (R) Dimethylmethcathinone.
 1447         (S) Pentylone (3,4-Methylenedioxy-alpha
 1448  methylaminovalerophenone).
 1449         (T) Pentedrone (alpha-Methylaminovalerophenone).
 1450         (U) MDPPP (3,4-Methylenedioxy-alpha
 1451  pyrrolidinopropiophenone).
 1452         (V) MDPBP (3,4-Methylenedioxy-alpha
 1453  pyrrolidinobutyrophenone).
 1454         (W) MPPP (Methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone).
 1455         (X) PPP (Pyrrolidinopropiophenone).
 1456         (Y) PVP (Pyrrolidinovalerophenone) or
 1457  (Pyrrolidinopentiophenone).
 1458         (Z) MOPPP (Methoxy-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone).
 1459         (AA) MPHP (Methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinohexanophenone).
 1460         (BB) F-MABP (Fluoromethylaminobutyrophenone).
 1461         (CC) Me-EABP (Methylethylaminobutyrophenone).
 1462         (DD) PBP (Pyrrolidinobutyrophenone).
 1463         (EE) MeO-PBP (Methoxypyrrolidinobutyrophenone).
 1464         (FF) Et-PBP (Ethylpyrrolidinobutyrophenone).
 1465         (GG) 3-Me-4-MeO-MCAT (3-Methyl-4-Methoxymethcathinone).
 1466         (HH) Dimethylone (3,4-Methylenedioxy-N,N
 1467  dimethylcathinone).
 1468         (II) 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N,N-diethylcathinone.
 1469         (JJ) 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-acetylcathinone.
 1470         (KK) 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-acetylmethcathinone.
 1471         (LL) 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-acetylethcathinone.
 1472         (MM) Methylbuphedrone (Methyl-alpha
 1473  methylaminobutyrophenone).
 1474         (NN) Methyl-alpha-methylaminohexanophenone.
 1475         (OO) N-Ethyl-N-methylcathinone.
 1476         (PP) PHP (Pyrrolidinohexanophenone).
 1477         (QQ) PV8 (Pyrrolidinoheptanophenone).
 1478         (RR) Chloromethcathinone.
 1479         (SS) 4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-alpha-aminoacetophenone.
 1480         192. Substituted Phenethylamines.—Unless specifically
 1481  excepted or unless listed in another schedule, or contained
 1482  within a pharmaceutical product approved by the United States
 1483  Food and Drug Administration, any material, compound, mixture,
 1484  or preparation, including its salts, isomers, esters, or ethers,
 1485  and salts of isomers, esters, or ethers, whenever the existence
 1486  of such salts is possible within any of the following specific
 1487  chemical designations, any compound containing a phenethylamine
 1488  structure, without a beta-keto group, and without a benzyl group
 1489  attached to the amine group, whether or not the compound is
 1490  further modified with or without substitution on the phenyl ring
 1491  to any extent with alkyl, alkylthio, nitro, alkoxy, thio,
 1492  halide, fused alkylenedioxy, fused furan, fused benzofuran,
 1493  fused dihydrofuran, or fused tetrahydropyran substituents,
 1494  whether or not further substituted on a ring to any extent, with
 1495  or without substitution at the alpha or beta position by any
 1496  alkyl substituent, with or without substitution at the nitrogen
 1497  atom, and with or without inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom
 1498  in a cyclic structure, including, but not limited to:
 1499         a. 2C-B (4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
 1500         b. 2C-E (4-Ethyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
 1501         c. 2C-T-4 (4-Isopropylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
 1502         d. 2C-C (4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
 1503         e. 2C-T (4-Methylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
 1504         f. 2C-T-2 (4-Ethylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
 1505         g. 2C-T-7 (4-(n)-Propylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
 1506         h. 2C-I (4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
 1507         i. 2C-D (4-Methyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
 1508         j. 2C-H (2,5-Dimethoxyphenethylamine).
 1509         k. 2C-N (4-Nitro-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
 1510         l. 2C-P (4-(n)-Propyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine).
 1511         m. MDMA (3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine).
 1512         n. MBDB (Methylbenzodioxolylbutanamine) or (3,4
 1513  Methylenedioxy-N-methylbutanamine).
 1514         o. MDA (3,4-Methylenedioxyamphetamine).
 1515         p. 2,5-Dimethoxyamphetamine.
 1516         q. Fluoroamphetamine.
 1517         r. Fluoromethamphetamine.
 1518         s. MDEA (3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine).
 1519         t. DOB (4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine).
 1520         u. DOC (4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine).
 1521         v. DOET (4-Ethyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine).
 1522         w. DOI (4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine).
 1523         x. DOM (4-Methyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine).
 1524         y. PMA (4-Methoxyamphetamine).
 1525         z. N-Ethylamphetamine.
 1526         aa. 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-hydroxyamphetamine.
 1527         bb. 5-Methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine.
 1528         cc. PMMA (4-Methoxymethamphetamine).
 1529         dd. N,N-Dimethylamphetamine.
 1530         ee. 3,4,5-Trimethoxyamphetamine.
 1531         ff. 4-APB (4-(2-Aminopropyl)benzofuran).
 1532         gg. 5-APB (5-(2-Aminopropyl)benzofuran).
 1533         hh. 6-APB (6-(2-Aminopropyl)benzofuran).
 1534         ii. 7-APB (7-(2-Aminopropyl)benzofuran).
 1535         jj. 4-APDB (4-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran).
 1536         kk. 5-APDB (5-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran).
 1537         ll. 6-APDB (6-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran).
 1538         mm. 7-APDB (7-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran).
 1539         nn. 4-MAPB (4-(2-Methylaminopropyl)benzofuran).
 1540         oo. 5-MAPB (5-(2-Methylaminopropyl)benzofuran).
 1541         pp. 6-MAPB (6-(2-Methylaminopropyl)benzofuran).
 1542         qq. 7-MAPB (7-(2-Methylaminopropyl)benzofuran).
 1543         rr. 5-EAPB (5-(2-Ethylaminopropyl)benzofuran).
 1544         ss. 5-MAPDB (5-(2-Methylaminopropyl)-2,3
 1545  dihydrobenzofuran),
 1546  
 1547  which does not include phenethylamine, mescaline as described in
 1548  subparagraph 20., substituted cathinones as described in
 1549  subparagraph 191., N-Benzyl phenethylamine compounds as
 1550  described in subparagraph 193., or methamphetamine as described
 1551  in subparagraph (2)(c)5. (2)(c)4.
 1552         193. N-Benzyl Phenethylamine Compounds.—Unless specifically
 1553  excepted or unless listed in another schedule, or contained
 1554  within a pharmaceutical product approved by the United States
 1555  Food and Drug Administration, any material, compound, mixture,
 1556  or preparation, including its salts, isomers, esters, or ethers,
 1557  and salts of isomers, esters, or ethers, whenever the existence
 1558  of such salts is possible within any of the following specific
 1559  chemical designations, any compound containing a phenethylamine
 1560  structure without a beta-keto group, with substitution on the
 1561  nitrogen atom of the amino group with a benzyl substituent, with
 1562  or without substitution on the phenyl or benzyl ring to any
 1563  extent with alkyl, alkoxy, thio, alkylthio, halide, fused
 1564  alkylenedioxy, fused furan, fused benzofuran, or fused
 1565  tetrahydropyran substituents, whether or not further substituted
 1566  on a ring to any extent, with or without substitution at the
 1567  alpha position by any alkyl substituent, including, but not
 1568  limited to:
 1569         a. 25B-NBOMe (4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2
 1570  methoxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1571         b. 25B-NBOH (4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2
 1572  hydroxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1573         c. 25B-NBF (4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2
 1574  fluorobenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1575         d. 25B-NBMD (4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2,3
 1576  methylenedioxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1577         e. 25I-NBOMe (4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2
 1578  methoxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1579         f. 25I-NBOH (4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2
 1580  hydroxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1581         g. 25I-NBF (4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2
 1582  fluorobenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1583         h. 25I-NBMD (4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2,3
 1584  methylenedioxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1585         i. 25T2-NBOMe (4-Methylthio-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2
 1586  methoxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1587         j. 25T4-NBOMe (4-Isopropylthio-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2
 1588  methoxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1589         k. 25T7-NBOMe (4-(n)-Propylthio-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2
 1590  methoxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1591         l. 25C-NBOMe (4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2
 1592  methoxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1593         m. 25C-NBOH (4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2
 1594  hydroxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1595         n. 25C-NBF (4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2
 1596  fluorobenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1597         o. 25C-NBMD (4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2,3
 1598  methylenedioxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1599         p. 25H-NBOMe (2,5-Dimethoxy-[N-(2
 1600  methoxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1601         q. 25H-NBOH (2,5-Dimethoxy-[N-(2
 1602  hydroxybenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1603         r. 25H-NBF (2,5-Dimethoxy-[N-(2
 1604  fluorobenzyl)]phenethylamine).
 1605         s. 25D-NBOMe (4-Methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-[N-(2
 1606  methoxybenzyl)]phenethylamine),
 1607  
 1608  which does not include substituted cathinones as described in
 1609  subparagraph 191.
 1610         194. Substituted Tryptamines.—Unless specifically excepted
 1611  or unless listed in another schedule, or contained within a
 1612  pharmaceutical product approved by the United States Food and
 1613  Drug Administration, any material, compound, mixture, or
 1614  preparation containing a 2-(1H-indol-3-yl)ethanamine, for
 1615  example tryptamine, structure with or without mono- or di
 1616  substitution of the amine nitrogen with alkyl or alkenyl groups,
 1617  or by inclusion of the amino nitrogen atom in a cyclic
 1618  structure, whether or not substituted at the alpha position with
 1619  an alkyl group, whether or not substituted on the indole ring to
 1620  any extent with any alkyl, alkoxy, halo, hydroxyl, or acetoxy
 1621  groups, including, but not limited to:
 1622         a. Alpha-Ethyltryptamine.
 1623         b. Bufotenine.
 1624         c. DET (Diethyltryptamine).
 1625         d. DMT (Dimethyltryptamine).
 1626         e. MET (N-Methyl-N-ethyltryptamine).
 1627         f. DALT (N,N-Diallyltryptamine).
 1628         g. EiPT (N-Ethyl-N-isopropyltryptamine).
 1629         h. MiPT (N-Methyl-N-isopropyltryptamine).
 1630         i. 5-Hydroxy-AMT (5-Hydroxy-alpha-methyltryptamine).
 1631         j. 5-Hydroxy-N-methyltryptamine.
 1632         k. 5-MeO-MiPT (5-Methoxy-N-methyl-N-isopropyltryptamine).
 1633         l. 5-MeO-AMT (5-Methoxy-alpha-methyltryptamine).
 1634         m. Methyltryptamine.
 1635         n. 5-MeO-DMT (5-Methoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine).
 1636         o. 5-Me-DMT (5-Methyl-N,N-dimethyltryptamine).
 1637         p. 5-MeO-DiPT (5-Methoxy-N,N-Diisopropyltryptamine).
 1638         q. DiPT (N,N-Diisopropyltryptamine).
 1639         r. DPT (N,N-Dipropyltryptamine).
 1640         s. 4-Hydroxy-DiPT (4-Hydroxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine).
 1641         t. 5-MeO-DALT (5-Methoxy-N,N-Diallyltryptamine).
 1642         u. 4-AcO-DMT (4-Acetoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine).
 1643         v. 4-AcO-DiPT (4-Acetoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine).
 1644         w. 4-Hydroxy-DET (4-Hydroxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine).
 1645         x. 4-Hydroxy-MET (4-Hydroxy-N-methyl-N-ethyltryptamine).
 1646         y. 4-Hydroxy-MiPT (4-Hydroxy-N-methyl-N
 1647  isopropyltryptamine).
 1648         z. Methyl-alpha-ethyltryptamine.
 1649         aa. Bromo-DALT (Bromo-N,N-diallyltryptamine),
 1650  
 1651  which does not include tryptamine, psilocyn as described in
 1652  subparagraph 34., or psilocybin as described in subparagraph 33.
 1653         195. Substituted Phenylcyclohexylamines.—Unless
 1654  specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, or
 1655  contained within a pharmaceutical product approved by the United
 1656  States Food and Drug Administration, any material, compound,
 1657  mixture, or preparation containing a phenylcyclohexylamine
 1658  structure, with or without any substitution on the phenyl ring,
 1659  any substitution on the cyclohexyl ring, any replacement of the
 1660  phenyl ring with a thiophenyl or benzothiophenyl ring, with or
 1661  without substitution on the amine with alkyl, dialkyl, or alkoxy
 1662  substituents, inclusion of the nitrogen in a cyclic structure,
 1663  or any combination of the above, including, but not limited to:
 1664         a. BTCP (Benzothiophenylcyclohexylpiperidine) or BCP
 1665  (Benocyclidine).
 1666         b. PCE (N-Ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine)(Ethylamine analog
 1667  of phencyclidine).
 1668         c. PCPY (N-(1-Phenylcyclohexyl)-pyrrolidine)(Pyrrolidine
 1669  analog of phencyclidine).
 1670         d. PCPr (Phenylcyclohexylpropylamine).
 1671         e. TCP (1-[1-(2-Thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine)(Thiophene
 1672  analog of phencyclidine).
 1673         f. PCEEA (Phenylcyclohexyl(ethoxyethylamine)).
 1674         g. PCMPA (Phenylcyclohexyl(methoxypropylamine)).
 1675         h. Methoxetamine.
 1676         i. 3-Methoxy-PCE ((3-Methoxyphenyl)cyclohexylethylamine).
 1677         j. Bromo-PCP ((Bromophenyl)cyclohexylpiperidine).
 1678         k. Chloro-PCP ((Chlorophenyl)cyclohexylpiperidine).
 1679         l. Fluoro-PCP ((Fluorophenyl)cyclohexylpiperidine).
 1680         m. Hydroxy-PCP ((Hydroxyphenyl)cyclohexylpiperidine).
 1681         n. Methoxy-PCP ((Methoxyphenyl)cyclohexylpiperidine).
 1682         o. Methyl-PCP ((Methylphenyl)cyclohexylpiperidine).
 1683         p. Nitro-PCP ((Nitrophenyl)cyclohexylpiperidine).
 1684         q. Oxo-PCP ((Oxophenyl)cyclohexylpiperidine).
 1685         r. Amino-PCP ((Aminophenyl)cyclohexylpiperidine).
 1686         196. W-15, 4-chloro-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-2
 1687  piperidinylidene]-benzenesulfonamide.
 1688         197. W-18, 4-chloro-N-[1-[2-(4-nitrophenyl)ethyl]-2
 1689  piperidinylidene]-benzenesulfonamide.
 1690         198. AH-7921, 3,4-dichloro-N-[[1
 1691  (dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]methyl]-benzamide.
 1692         199. U47700, trans-3,4-dichloro-N-[2
 1693  (dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methyl-benzamide.
 1694         200. MT-45, 1-cyclohexyl-4-(1,2-diphenylethyl)-piperazine,
 1695  dihydrochloride.
 1696         (2) SCHEDULE II.—A substance in Schedule II has a high
 1697  potential for abuse and has a currently accepted but severely
 1698  restricted medical use in treatment in the United States, and
 1699  abuse of the substance may lead to severe psychological or
 1700  physical dependence. The following substances are controlled in
 1701  Schedule II:
 1702         (a) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in
 1703  another schedule, any of the following substances, whether
 1704  produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of
 1705  vegetable origin or independently by means of chemical
 1706  synthesis:
 1707         1. Opium and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation
 1708  of opium, except nalmefene or isoquinoline alkaloids of opium,
 1709  including, but not limited to the following:
 1710         a. Raw opium.
 1711         b. Opium extracts.
 1712         c. Opium fluid extracts.
 1713         d. Powdered opium.
 1714         e. Granulated opium.
 1715         f. Tincture of opium.
 1716         g. Codeine.
 1717         h.Dihydroetorphine.
 1718         i.h. Ethylmorphine.
 1719         j.i. Etorphine hydrochloride.
 1720         k.j. Hydrocodone and hydrocodone combination products.
 1721         l.k. Hydromorphone.
 1722         m.l. Levo-alphacetylmethadol (also known as levo-alpha
 1723  acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM).
 1724         n.m. Metopon (methyldihydromorphinone).
 1725         o.n. Morphine.
 1726         p.Oripavine.
 1727         q.o. Oxycodone.
 1728         r.p. Oxymorphone.
 1729         s.q. Thebaine.
 1730         2. Any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of a
 1731  substance which is chemically equivalent to or identical with
 1732  any of the substances referred to in subparagraph 1., except
 1733  that these substances shall not include the isoquinoline
 1734  alkaloids of opium.
 1735         3. Any part of the plant of the species Papaver somniferum,
 1736  L.
 1737         4. Cocaine or ecgonine, including any of their
 1738  stereoisomers, and any salt, compound, derivative, or
 1739  preparation of cocaine or ecgonine, except that these substances
 1740  shall not include ioflupane I 123.
 1741         (b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in
 1742  another schedule, any of the following substances, including
 1743  their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers,
 1744  esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers,
 1745  esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific
 1746  chemical designation:
 1747         1. Alfentanil.
 1748         2. Alphaprodine.
 1749         3. Anileridine.
 1750         4. Bezitramide.
 1751         5. Bulk propoxyphene (nondosage forms).
 1752         6. Carfentanil.
 1753         7. Dihydrocodeine.
 1754         8. Diphenoxylate.
 1755         9. Fentanyl.
 1756         10. Isomethadone.
 1757         11. Levomethorphan.
 1758         12. Levorphanol.
 1759         13. Metazocine.
 1760         14. Methadone.
 1761         15. Methadone-Intermediate,4-cyano-2-
 1762  dimethylamino-4,4-diphenylbutane.
 1763         16. Moramide-Intermediate,2-methyl-
 1764  3-morpholoino-1,1-diphenylpropane-carboxylic acid.
 1765         17. Nabilone.
 1766         18. Pethidine (meperidine).
 1767         19. Pethidine-Intermediate-A,4-cyano-1-
 1768  methyl-4-phenylpiperidine.
 1769         20. Pethidine-Intermediate-B,ethyl-4-
 1770  phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylate.
 1771         21. Pethidine-Intermediate-C,1-methyl-4- phenylpiperidine
 1772  4-carboxylic acid.
 1773         22. Phenazocine.
 1774         23. Phencyclidine.
 1775         24. 1-Phenylcyclohexylamine.
 1776         25. Piminodine.
 1777         26. 1-Piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile.
 1778         27. Racemethorphan.
 1779         28. Racemorphan.
 1780         29.Remifentanil.
 1781         30.29. Sufentanil.
 1782         31.Tapentadol.
 1783         32.Thiafentanil.
 1784         (c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in
 1785  another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or
 1786  preparation which contains any quantity of the following
 1787  substances, including their salts, isomers, optical isomers,
 1788  salts of their isomers, and salts of their optical isomers:
 1789         1. Amobarbital.
 1790         2. Amphetamine.
 1791         3. Glutethimide.
 1792         4.Lisdexamfetamine.
 1793         5.4. Methamphetamine.
 1794         6.5. Methylphenidate.
 1795         7.6. Pentobarbital.
 1796         8.7. Phenmetrazine.
 1797         9.8. Phenylacetone.
 1798         10.9. Secobarbital.
 1799         (d)Dronabinol (synthetic THC) in oral solution in a drug
 1800  product approved by the United States Food and Drug
 1801  Administration.
 1802         (3) SCHEDULE III.—A substance in Schedule III has a
 1803  potential for abuse less than the substances contained in
 1804  Schedules I and II and has a currently accepted medical use in
 1805  treatment in the United States, and abuse of the substance may
 1806  lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high
 1807  psychological dependence or, in the case of anabolic steroids,
 1808  may lead to physical damage. The following substances are
 1809  controlled in Schedule III:
 1810         (a) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in
 1811  another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or
 1812  preparation which contains any quantity of the following
 1813  substances having a depressant or stimulant effect on the
 1814  nervous system:
 1815         1. Any substance which contains any quantity of a
 1816  derivative of barbituric acid, including thiobarbituric acid, or
 1817  any salt of a derivative of barbituric acid or thiobarbituric
 1818  acid, including, but not limited to, butabarbital and
 1819  butalbital.
 1820         2. Benzphetamine.
 1821         3.Buprenorphine.
 1822         4.3. Chlorhexadol.
 1823         5.4. Chlorphentermine.
 1824         6.5. Clortermine.
 1825         7.Embutramide.
 1826         8.6. Lysergic acid.
 1827         9.7. Lysergic acid amide.
 1828         10.8. Methyprylon.
 1829         11.Perampanel.
 1830         12.9. Phendimetrazine.
 1831         13.10. Sulfondiethylmethane.
 1832         14.11. Sulfonethylmethane.
 1833         15.12. Sulfonmethane.
 1834         16.13. Tiletamine and zolazepam or any salt thereof.
 1835         (b) Nalorphine.
 1836         (c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in
 1837  another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or
 1838  preparation containing limited quantities of any of the
 1839  following controlled substances or any salts thereof:
 1840         1. Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters
 1841  or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with an equal or
 1842  greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium.
 1843         2. Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters
 1844  or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with recognized
 1845  therapeutic amounts of one or more active ingredients which are
 1846  not controlled substances.
 1847         3. Not more than 300 milligrams of hydrocodone per 100
 1848  milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with
 1849  a fourfold or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of
 1850  opium.
 1851         4. Not more than 300 milligrams of hydrocodone per 100
 1852  milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with
 1853  recognized therapeutic amounts of one or more active ingredients
 1854  that are not controlled substances.
 1855         5. Not more than 1.8 grams of dihydrocodeine per 100
 1856  milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with
 1857  recognized therapeutic amounts of one or more active ingredients
 1858  which are not controlled substances.
 1859         6. Not more than 300 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100
 1860  milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with
 1861  one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized
 1862  therapeutic amounts.
 1863         7. Not more than 50 milligrams of morphine per 100
 1864  milliliters or per 100 grams, with recognized therapeutic
 1865  amounts of one or more active ingredients which are not
 1866  controlled substances.
 1867  
 1868  For purposes of charging a person with a violation of s. 893.135
 1869  involving any controlled substance described in subparagraph 3.
 1870  or subparagraph 4., the controlled substance is a Schedule III
 1871  controlled substance pursuant to this paragraph but the weight
 1872  of the controlled substance per milliliters or per dosage unit
 1873  is not relevant to the charging of a violation of s. 893.135.
 1874  The weight of the controlled substance shall be determined
 1875  pursuant to s. 893.135(6).
 1876         (d) Anabolic steroids.
 1877         1. The term “anabolic steroid” means any drug or hormonal
 1878  substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to
 1879  testosterone, other than estrogens, progestins, and
 1880  corticosteroids, that promotes muscle growth and includes:
 1881         a. Androsterone.
 1882         b. Androsterone acetate.
 1883         c. Boldenone.
 1884         d. Boldenone acetate.
 1885         e. Boldenone benzoate.
 1886         f. Boldenone undecylenate.
 1887         g. Chlorotestosterone (Clostebol).
 1888         h. Dehydrochlormethyltestosterone.
 1889         i. Dihydrotestosterone (Stanolone).
 1890         j. Drostanolone.
 1891         k. Ethylestrenol.
 1892         l. Fluoxymesterone.
 1893         m. Formebulone (Formebolone).
 1894         n. Mesterolone.
 1895         o. Methandrostenolone (Methandienone).
 1896         p. Methandranone.
 1897         q. Methandriol.
 1898         r. Methenolone.
 1899         s. Methyltestosterone.
 1900         t. Mibolerone.
 1901         u. Nortestosterone (Nandrolone).
 1902         v. Norethandrolone.
 1903         w. Nortestosterone decanoate.
 1904         x. Nortestosterone phenylpropionate.
 1905         y. Nortestosterone propionate.
 1906         z. Oxandrolone.
 1907         aa. Oxymesterone.
 1908         bb. Oxymetholone.
 1909         cc. Stanozolol.
 1910         dd. Testolactone.
 1911         ee. Testosterone.
 1912         ff. Testosterone acetate.
 1913         gg. Testosterone benzoate.
 1914         hh. Testosterone cypionate.
 1915         ii. Testosterone decanoate.
 1916         jj. Testosterone enanthate.
 1917         kk. Testosterone isocaproate.
 1918         ll. Testosterone oleate.
 1919         mm. Testosterone phenylpropionate.
 1920         nn. Testosterone propionate.
 1921         oo. Testosterone undecanoate.
 1922         pp. Trenbolone.
 1923         qq. Trenbolone acetate.
 1924         rr. Any salt, ester, or isomer of a drug or substance
 1925  described or listed in this subparagraph if that salt, ester, or
 1926  isomer promotes muscle growth.
 1927         2. The term does not include an anabolic steroid that is
 1928  expressly intended for administration through implants to cattle
 1929  or other nonhuman species and that has been approved by the
 1930  United States Secretary of Health and Human Services for such
 1931  administration. However, any person who prescribes, dispenses,
 1932  or distributes such a steroid for human use is considered to
 1933  have prescribed, dispensed, or distributed an anabolic steroid
 1934  within the meaning of this paragraph.
 1935         (e) Ketamine, including any isomers, esters, ethers, salts,
 1936  and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence
 1937  of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within
 1938  the specific chemical designation.
 1939         (f) Dronabinol (synthetic THC) in sesame oil and
 1940  encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a drug product
 1941  approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.
 1942         (g) Any drug product containing gamma-hydroxybutyric acid,
 1943  including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, for which an
 1944  application is approved under s. 505 of the Federal Food, Drug,
 1945  and Cosmetic Act.
 1946         (4)(a) SCHEDULE IV.—A substance in Schedule IV has a low
 1947  potential for abuse relative to the substances in Schedule III
 1948  and has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the
 1949  United States, and abuse of the substance may lead to limited
 1950  physical or psychological dependence relative to the substances
 1951  in Schedule III.
 1952         (b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in
 1953  another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or
 1954  preparation which contains any quantity of the following
 1955  substances, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers
 1956  whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of
 1957  isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation,
 1958  are controlled in Schedule IV:
 1959         1.Alfaxalone.
 1960         2.(a) Alprazolam.
 1961         3.(b) Barbital.
 1962         4.(c) Bromazepam.
 1963         5.(iii) Butorphanol tartrate.
 1964         6.(d) Camazepam.
 1965         7.(jjj) Carisoprodol.
 1966         8.(e) Cathine.
 1967         9.(f) Chloral betaine.
 1968         10.(g) Chloral hydrate.
 1969         11.(h) Chlordiazepoxide.
 1970         12.(i) Clobazam.
 1971         13.(j) Clonazepam.
 1972         14.(k) Clorazepate.
 1973         15.(l) Clotiazepam.
 1974         16.(m) Cloxazolam.
 1975         17.Dexfenfluramine.
 1976         18.(n) Delorazepam.
 1977         19.Dichloralphenazone.
 1978         20.(p) Diazepam.
 1979         21.(q) Diethylpropion.
 1980         22.Eluxadoline.
 1981         23.(r) Estazolam.
 1982         24.Eszopiclone.
 1983         25.(s) Ethchlorvynol.
 1984         26.(t) Ethinamate.
 1985         27.(u) Ethyl loflazepate.
 1986         28.(v) Fencamfamin.
 1987         29.(w) Fenfluramine.
 1988         30.(x) Fenproporex.
 1989         31.(y) Fludiazepam.
 1990         32.(z) Flurazepam.
 1991         33.Fospropofol.
 1992         34.(aa) Halazepam.
 1993         35.(bb) Haloxazolam.
 1994         36.(cc) Ketazolam.
 1995         37.(dd) Loprazolam.
 1996         38.(ee) Lorazepam.
 1997         39.Lorcaserin.
 1998         40.(ff) Lormetazepam.
 1999         41.(gg) Mazindol.
 2000         42.(hh) Mebutamate.
 2001         43.(ii) Medazepam.
 2002         44.(jj) Mefenorex.
 2003         45.(kk) Meprobamate.
 2004         46.(ll) Methohexital.
 2005         47.(mm) Methylphenobarbital.
 2006         48.(nn) Midazolam.
 2007         49.Modafinil.
 2008         50.(oo) Nimetazepam.
 2009         51.(pp) Nitrazepam.
 2010         52.(qq) Nordiazepam.
 2011         53.(rr) Oxazepam.
 2012         54.(ss) Oxazolam.
 2013         55.(tt) Paraldehyde.
 2014         56.(uu) Pemoline.
 2015         57.(vv) Pentazocine.
 2016         58.Petrichloral.
 2017         59.(ww) Phenobarbital.
 2018         60.(xx) Phentermine.
 2019         61.(yy) Pinazepam.
 2020         62.(zz) Pipradrol.
 2021         63.(aaa) Prazepam.
 2022         64.(o) Propoxyphene (dosage forms).
 2023         65.(bbb) Propylhexedrine, excluding any patent or
 2024  proprietary preparation containing propylhexedrine, unless
 2025  otherwise provided by federal law.
 2026         66.(ccc) Quazepam.
 2027         67.Sibutramine.
 2028         68.(eee) SPA[(-)-1 dimethylamino-1, 2
 2029  diphenylethane].
 2030         69.Suvorexant.
 2031         70.(fff) Temazepam.
 2032         71.(ddd) Tetrazepam.
 2033         72.Tramadol.
 2034         73.(ggg) Triazolam.
 2035         74.Zaleplon.
 2036         75.Zolpidem.
 2037         76.Zopiclone.
 2038         77.(hhh) Not more than 1 milligram of difenoxin and not
 2039  less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit.
 2040         (5) SCHEDULE V.—A substance, compound, mixture, or
 2041  preparation of a substance in Schedule V has a low potential for
 2042  abuse relative to the substances in Schedule IV and has a
 2043  currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United
 2044  States, and abuse of such compound, mixture, or preparation may
 2045  lead to limited physical or psychological dependence relative to
 2046  the substances in Schedule IV.
 2047         (a) Substances controlled in Schedule V include any
 2048  compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the
 2049  following limited quantities of controlled substances, which
 2050  must shall include one or more active medicinal ingredients that
 2051  which are not controlled substances in sufficient proportion to
 2052  confer upon the compound, mixture, or preparation valuable
 2053  medicinal qualities other than those possessed by the controlled
 2054  substance alone:
 2055         1. Not more than 200 milligrams of codeine per 100
 2056  milliliters or per 100 grams.
 2057         2. Not more than 100 milligrams of dihydrocodeine per 100
 2058  milliliters or per 100 grams.
 2059         3. Not more than 100 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100
 2060  milliliters or per 100 grams.
 2061         4. Not more than 2.5 milligrams of diphenoxylate and not
 2062  less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit.
 2063         5. Not more than 100 milligrams of opium per 100
 2064  milliliters or per 100 grams.
 2065         6.Not more than 0.5 milligrams of difenoxin and not less
 2066  than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit.
 2067         (b) Unless a specific exception exists or unless listed in
 2068  another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or
 2069  preparation that contains any quantity of the following
 2070  substances is controlled in Schedule V:
 2071         1. Brivaracetam.
 2072         2.Ezogabine.
 2073         3.Lacosamide.
 2074         4.Pregabalin Narcotic drugs. Unless specifically excepted
 2075  or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound,
 2076  mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic
 2077  drugs and their salts: Buprenorphine.
 2078         (c) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless
 2079  listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or
 2080  preparation which contains any quantity of the following
 2081  substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous
 2082  system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers:
 2083  Pyrovalerone.
 2084         Section 11. Subsection (1) of section 893.04, Florida
 2085  Statutes, is amended to read:
 2086         893.04 Pharmacist and practitioner.—
 2087         (1) A pharmacist, in good faith and in the course of
 2088  professional practice only, may dispense controlled substances
 2089  upon a written, or oral, or electronic prescription of a
 2090  practitioner, under the following conditions:
 2091         (a) Oral prescriptions must be promptly reduced to writing
 2092  by the pharmacist or recorded electronically if permitted by
 2093  federal law.
 2094         (b) The written prescription must be dated and signed by
 2095  the prescribing practitioner on the day when issued.
 2096         (c) There shall appear on the face of the prescription or
 2097  written record thereof for the controlled substance the
 2098  following information:
 2099         1. The full name and address of the person for whom, or the
 2100  owner of the animal for which, the controlled substance is
 2101  dispensed.
 2102         2. The full name and address of the prescribing
 2103  practitioner and the practitioner’s federal controlled substance
 2104  registry number shall be printed thereon.
 2105         3. If the prescription is for an animal, the species of
 2106  animal for which the controlled substance is prescribed.
 2107         4. The name of the controlled substance prescribed and the
 2108  strength, quantity, and directions for use thereof.
 2109         5. The number of the prescription, as recorded in the
 2110  prescription files of the pharmacy in which it is filled.
 2111         6. The initials of the pharmacist filling the prescription
 2112  and the date filled.
 2113         (d) The prescription shall be retained on file by the
 2114  proprietor of the pharmacy in which it is filled for a period of
 2115  2 years.
 2116         (e) Affixed to the original container in which a controlled
 2117  substance is delivered upon a prescription or authorized refill
 2118  thereof, as hereinafter provided, there shall be a label bearing
 2119  the following information:
 2120         1. The name and address of the pharmacy from which such
 2121  controlled substance was dispensed.
 2122         2. The date on which the prescription for such controlled
 2123  substance was filled.
 2124         3. The number of such prescription, as recorded in the
 2125  prescription files of the pharmacy in which it is filled.
 2126         4. The name of the prescribing practitioner.
 2127         5. The name of the patient for whom, or of the owner and
 2128  species of the animal for which, the controlled substance is
 2129  prescribed.
 2130         6. The directions for the use of the controlled substance
 2131  prescribed in the prescription.
 2132         7. A clear, concise warning that it is a crime to transfer
 2133  the controlled substance to any person other than the patient
 2134  for whom prescribed.
 2135         (f) A prescription for a controlled substance listed in
 2136  Schedule II may be dispensed only upon a written or electronic
 2137  prescription of a practitioner, except that in an emergency
 2138  situation, as defined by regulation of the Department of Health,
 2139  such controlled substance may be dispensed upon oral
 2140  prescription but is limited to a 72-hour supply. A prescription
 2141  for a controlled substance listed in Schedule II may not be
 2142  refilled.
 2143         (g) A prescription for a controlled substance listed in
 2144  Schedule III, Schedule IV, or Schedule V may not be filled or
 2145  refilled more than five times within a period of 6 months after
 2146  the date on which the prescription was written unless the
 2147  prescription is renewed by a practitioner.
 2148         Section 12. Section 893.055, Florida Statutes, is amended
 2149  to read:
 2150         (Substantial rewording of section. See
 2151         s. 893.055, F.S., for present text.)
 2152         893.055Prescription drug monitoring program.—
 2153         (1)As used in this section, the term:
 2154         (a)“Active investigation” means an investigation that is
 2155  being conducted with a reasonable, good faith belief that it
 2156  could lead to the filing of administrative, civil, or criminal
 2157  proceedings, or that is ongoing and continuing and for which
 2158  there is a reasonable, good faith anticipation of securing an
 2159  arrest or prosecution in the foreseeable future.
 2160         (b)“Administration” means the obtaining and giving of a
 2161  single dose of a controlled substance by a legally authorized
 2162  person to a patient for her or his consumption.
 2163         (c)“Controlled substance” means a controlled substance
 2164  listed in Schedule II, Schedule III, Schedule IV, or Schedule V
 2165  of s. 893.03 or 21 U.S.C. s. 812.
 2166         (d)“Dispense” means the transfer of possession of one or
 2167  more doses of a controlled substance by a dispenser to the
 2168  ultimate consumer or to his or her agent.
 2169         (e)“Dispenser” means a dispensing health care
 2170  practitioner, pharmacy, or pharmacist licensed to dispense
 2171  controlled substances in or into this state.
 2172         (f)“Health care practitioner” or “practitioner” means any
 2173  practitioner licensed under chapter 458, chapter 459, chapter
 2174  461, chapter 463, chapter 464, chapter 465, or chapter 466.
 2175         (g)“Health care regulatory board” has the same meaning as
 2176  in s. 456.001(1).
 2177         (h)“Law enforcement agency” means the Department of Law
 2178  Enforcement, a sheriff’s office in this state, a police
 2179  department in this state, or a law enforcement agency of the
 2180  Federal Government which enforces the laws of this state or the
 2181  United States relating to controlled substances and whose agents
 2182  and officers are empowered by law to conduct criminal
 2183  investigations and make arrests.
 2184         (i)“Pharmacy” includes a community pharmacy, an
 2185  institutional pharmacy, a nuclear pharmacy, a special pharmacy,
 2186  or an Internet pharmacy that is licensed by the department under
 2187  chapter 465 and that dispenses or delivers controlled substances
 2188  to an individual or address in this state.
 2189         (j)“Prescriber” means a prescribing physician, prescribing
 2190  practitioner, or other prescribing health care practitioner
 2191  authorized by the laws of this state to order controlled
 2192  substances.
 2193         (k)“Program manager” means an employee of or a person
 2194  contracted by the department who is designated to ensure the
 2195  integrity of the prescription drug monitoring program in
 2196  accordance with the requirements established in this section.
 2197         (2)(a)The department shall maintain an electronic system
 2198  to collect and store controlled substance dispensing information
 2199  and shall release the information as authorized in this section
 2200  and s. 893.0551. The electronic system must:
 2201         1.Not infringe upon the legitimate prescribing or
 2202  dispensing of a controlled substance by a prescriber or
 2203  dispenser acting in good faith and in the course of professional
 2204  practice.
 2205         2.Be consistent with standards of the American Society for
 2206  Automation in Pharmacy.
 2207         3.Comply with the Health Insurance Portability and
 2208  Accountability Act as it pertains to protected health
 2209  information, electronic protected health information, and all
 2210  other relevant state and federal privacy and security laws and
 2211  regulations.
 2212         4.Purge or cause to be purged information in the database
 2213  that is more than 4 years old.
 2214         (b)The department may collaborate with professional health
 2215  care regulatory boards, appropriate organizations, and other
 2216  state agencies to identify indicators of controlled substance
 2217  abuse.
 2218         (3)(a)For each controlled substance dispensed to a patient
 2219  in this state, the following information must be reported by the
 2220  dispenser to the system as soon thereafter as possible but no
 2221  later than the close of the next business day after the day the
 2222  controlled substance is dispensed unless an extension or
 2223  exemption is approved by the department:
 2224         1.The name of the prescribing practitioner, the
 2225  practitioner’s federal Drug Enforcement Administration
 2226  registration number, the practitioner’s National Provider
 2227  Identification or other appropriate identifier, and the date of
 2228  the prescription.
 2229         2.The date the prescription was filled and the method of
 2230  payment, such as cash by an individual, insurance coverage
 2231  through a third party, or Medicaid payment. This paragraph does
 2232  not authorize the department to include individual credit card
 2233  numbers or other account numbers in the system.
 2234         3.The full name, address, telephone number, and date of
 2235  birth of the person for whom the prescription was written.
 2236         4.The name, national drug code, quantity, and strength of
 2237  the controlled substance dispensed.
 2238         5.The full name, federal Drug Enforcement Administration
 2239  registration number, State of Florida Department of Health
 2240  issued pharmacy permit number, and address of the pharmacy or
 2241  other location from which the controlled substance was
 2242  dispensed. If the controlled substance was dispensed by a
 2243  practitioner other than a pharmacist, the practitioner’s full
 2244  name, address, federal Drug Enforcement Administration
 2245  registration number, State of Florida Department of Health
 2246  issued license number, and National Provider Identification.
 2247         6.Whether the drug was dispensed as an initial
 2248  prescription or a refill, and the number of refills ordered.
 2249         7.The name of the individual picking up the controlled
 2250  substance prescription and type and issuer of the identification
 2251  provided.
 2252         8.Other appropriate identifying information as determined
 2253  by department rule.
 2254         (b)The following acts of administration or dispensing are
 2255  exempt from the reporting requirements of this subsection:
 2256         1. All acts of administration of a controlled substance.
 2257         2. The dispensing of a controlled substance in the health
 2258  care system of the Department of Corrections.
 2259         3. The dispensing of a controlled substance to a person
 2260  under the age of 16.
 2261         (4) The following persons must be provided direct access to
 2262  information in the system:
 2263         (a)A prescriber or dispenser or his or her designee.
 2264         (b)An employee of the United States Department of Veterans
 2265  Affairs, the United States Department of Defense, or the Indian
 2266  Health Service who provides health care services pursuant to
 2267  such employment and who has the authority to prescribe
 2268  controlled substances shall have access to the information in
 2269  the program’s system upon verification of employment.
 2270         (c)The program manager or designated program and support
 2271  staff to administer the system.
 2272         1.In order to calculate performance measures pursuant to
 2273  subsection (14), the program manager or program and support
 2274  staff members who have been directed by the program manager to
 2275  calculate performance measures may have direct access to
 2276  information that contains no identifying information of any
 2277  patient, physician, health care practitioner, prescriber, or
 2278  dispenser.
 2279         2.The program manager or designated program and support
 2280  staff must provide the department, upon request, data that does
 2281  not contain patient, physician, health care practitioner,
 2282  prescriber, or dispenser identifying information for public
 2283  health care and safety initiatives purposes.
 2284         3.The program manager, upon determining a pattern
 2285  consistent with the department’s rules established under
 2286  subsection (16), may provide relevant information to the
 2287  prescriber and dispenser.
 2288         4.The program manager, upon determining a pattern
 2289  consistent with the rules established under subsection (16) and
 2290  having cause to believe a violation of s. 893.13(7)(a)8.,
 2291  (8)(a), or (8)(b) has occurred, may provide relevant information
 2292  to the applicable law enforcement agency.
 2293  
 2294  The program manager and designated program and support staff
 2295  must complete a level II background screening.
 2296         (5)The following entities may not directly access
 2297  information in the system, but may request information from the
 2298  program manager or designated program and support staff:
 2299         (a)The department and its health care regulatory boards,
 2300  as appropriate, for investigations involving licensees
 2301  authorized to prescribe or dispense controlled substances.
 2302         (b)The Attorney General for Medicaid fraud cases involving
 2303  prescribed controlled substances.
 2304         (c)A law enforcement agency during active investigations
 2305  of potential criminal activity, fraud, or theft regarding
 2306  prescribed controlled substances.
 2307         (d)A medical examiner when conducting an authorized
 2308  investigation under s. 406.11, to determine the cause of death
 2309  of an individual.
 2310         (e)An impaired practitioner consultant who is retained by
 2311  the department under s. 456.076 to review the system information
 2312  of an impaired practitioner program participant or a referral
 2313  who has agreed to be evaluated or monitored through the program
 2314  and who has separately agreed in writing to the consultant’s
 2315  access to and review of such information.
 2316         (f)A patient or the legal guardian or designated health
 2317  care surrogate of an incapacitated patient who submits a written
 2318  and notarized request that includes the patient’s full name,
 2319  address, phone number, date of birth, and a copy of a
 2320  government-issued photo identification.
 2321         (6)The department may enter into one or more reciprocal
 2322  agreements or contracts to share prescription drug monitoring
 2323  information with other states, districts, or territories if the
 2324  prescription drug monitoring programs of such other states,
 2325  districts, or territories are compatible with the Florida
 2326  program.
 2327         (a)In determining compatibility, the department shall
 2328  consider:
 2329         1.The safeguards for privacy of patient records and the
 2330  success of the program in protecting patient privacy.
 2331         2.The persons authorized to view the data collected by the
 2332  program. Comparable entities and licensed health care
 2333  practitioners in other states, districts, or territories of the
 2334  United States, law enforcement agencies, the Attorney General’s
 2335  Medicaid Fraud Control Unit, medical regulatory boards, and, as
 2336  needed, management staff that have similar duties as management
 2337  staff who work with the prescription drug monitoring program as
 2338  authorized in s. 893.0551 are authorized access upon approval by
 2339  the department.
 2340         3.The schedules of the controlled substances that are
 2341  monitored by the program.
 2342         4.The data reported to or included in the program’s
 2343  system.
 2344         5.Any implementing criteria deemed essential for a
 2345  thorough comparison.
 2346         6.The costs and benefits to the state of sharing
 2347  prescription information.
 2348         (b) The department shall assess the prescription drug
 2349  monitoring program’s continued compatibility with other states’,
 2350  districts’, or territories’ programs every 4 years.
 2351         (c) Any agreements or contracts for sharing of prescription
 2352  drug monitoring information between the department and other
 2353  states, districts, or territories shall contain the same
 2354  restrictions and requirements as this section or s. 893.0551,
 2355  and the information must be provided according to the
 2356  department’s determination of compatibility.
 2357         (7)The department may enter into agreements or contracts
 2358  to establish secure connections between the system and a
 2359  prescribing or dispensing health care practitioner’s electronic
 2360  health recordkeeping system. The electronic health recordkeeping
 2361  system owner or license holder will be responsible for ensuring
 2362  that only authorized individuals have access to prescription
 2363  drug monitoring program information.
 2364         (8)A prescriber or dispenser or a designee of a prescriber
 2365  or dispenser must consult the system to review a patient’s
 2366  controlled substance dispensing history before prescribing or
 2367  dispensing a controlled substance for a patient age 16 or older.
 2368  This requirement does not apply when prescribing or dispensing a
 2369  nonopioid controlled substance listed in Schedule V of s. 893.03
 2370  or 21 U.S.C. 812. For purposes of this subsection, a “nonopioid
 2371  controlled substance” is a controlled substance that does not
 2372  contain any amount of a substance listed as an opioid in s.
 2373  893.03 or 21 U.S.C. 812.
 2374         (a)The duty to consult the system does not apply when the
 2375  system:
 2376         1. Is determined by the department to be nonoperational; or
 2377         2. Cannot be accessed by the prescriber or dispenser or a
 2378  designee of the prescriber or dispenser because of a temporary
 2379  technological or electrical failure.
 2380         (b)A prescriber or dispenser or designee of a prescriber
 2381  or dispenser who does not consult the system under this
 2382  subsection shall document the reason he or she did not consult
 2383  the system in the patient’s medical record or prescription
 2384  record and shall not prescribe or dispense greater than a 3-day
 2385  supply of a controlled substance to the patient.
 2386         (c)Notwithstanding s. 456.077(1), the department must
 2387  issue a citation pursuant to s. 456.077 to any prescriber or
 2388  dispenser who fails to comply with this subsection or whose
 2389  designee fails to comply with this subsection. The department
 2390  must also refer the noncompliance to the appropriate board for
 2391  consideration of disciplinary action, including suspension or
 2392  revocation of license, against the non-compliant prescriber or
 2393  dispenser.
 2394         (9)A person who willfully and knowingly fails to report
 2395  the dispensing of a controlled substance as required by this
 2396  section commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as
 2397  provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
 2398         (10)Information in the prescription drug monitoring
 2399  program’s system may be released only as provided in this
 2400  section and s. 893.0551. The content of the system is intended
 2401  to be informational only. Information in the system is not
 2402  subject to discovery or introduction into evidence in any civil
 2403  or administrative action against a prescriber, dispenser,
 2404  pharmacy, or patient arising out of matters that are the subject
 2405  of information in the system. The program manager and authorized
 2406  persons who participate in preparing, reviewing, issuing, or any
 2407  other activity related to management of the system may not be
 2408  permitted or required to testify in any such civil or
 2409  administrative action as to any findings, recommendations,
 2410  evaluations, opinions, or other actions taken in connection with
 2411  management of the system.
 2412         (11)A prescriber or dispenser, or his or her designee, may
 2413  have access to the information under this section which relates
 2414  to a patient of that prescriber or dispenser as needed for the
 2415  purpose of reviewing the patient’s controlled drug prescription
 2416  history. A prescriber or dispenser acting in good faith is
 2417  immune from any civil, criminal, or administrative liability
 2418  that might otherwise be incurred or imposed for receiving or
 2419  using information from the prescription drug monitoring program.
 2420  This subsection does not create a private cause of action, and a
 2421  person may not recover damages against a prescriber or dispenser
 2422  authorized to access information under this subsection for
 2423  accessing or failing to access such information.
 2424         (12)(a)All costs incurred by the department in
 2425  administering the prescription drug monitoring program shall be
 2426  funded through federal grants, private funding applied for or
 2427  received by the state, or state funds appropriated in the
 2428  General Appropriations Act. The department may not:
 2429         1.Commit funds for the monitoring program without ensuring
 2430  funding is available; or
 2431         2.Use funds provided, directly or indirectly, by
 2432  prescription drug manufacturers to implement the program.
 2433         (b)The department shall cooperate with the direct-support
 2434  organization established under subsection (15) in seeking
 2435  federal grant funds, other nonstate grant funds, gifts,
 2436  donations, or other private moneys for the department if the
 2437  costs of doing so are immaterial. Immaterial costs include, but
 2438  are not limited to, the costs of mailing and personnel assigned
 2439  to research or apply for a grant. The department may
 2440  competitively procure and contract pursuant to s. 287.057 for
 2441  any goods and services required by this section.
 2442         (13)The department shall conduct or participate in studies
 2443  to examine the feasibility of enhancing the prescription drug
 2444  monitoring program for the purposes of public health initiatives
 2445  and statistical reporting. Such studies shall respect the
 2446  privacy of the patient, the prescriber, and the dispenser. Such
 2447  studies may be conducted by the department or a contracted
 2448  vendor in order to:
 2449         (a)Improve the quality of health care services and safety
 2450  by improving prescribing and dispensing practices for controlled
 2451  substances;
 2452         (b)Take advantage of advances in technology;
 2453         (c)Reduce duplicative prescriptions and the
 2454  overprescribing of controlled substances; and
 2455         (d)Reduce drug abuse.
 2456         (14)The department shall annually report on performance
 2457  measures to the Governor, the President of the Senate, and the
 2458  Speaker of the House of Representatives by December 1.
 2459  Performance measures may include, but are not limited to, the
 2460  following outcomes:
 2461         (a)Reduction of the rate of inappropriate use of
 2462  controlled substances through department education and safety
 2463  efforts.
 2464         (b)Reduction of the quantity of controlled substances
 2465  obtained by individuals attempting to engage in fraud and
 2466  deceit.
 2467         (c)Increased coordination among partners participating in
 2468  the prescription drug monitoring program.
 2469         (d)Involvement of stakeholders in achieving improved
 2470  patient health care and safety and reduction of controlled
 2471  substance abuse and controlled substance diversion.
 2472         (15)The department may establish a direct-support
 2473  organization to provide assistance, funding, and promotional
 2474  support for the activities authorized for the prescription drug
 2475  monitoring program.
 2476         (a)As used in this subsection, the term “direct-support
 2477  organization” means an organization that is:
 2478         1.A Florida corporation not for profit incorporated under
 2479  chapter 617, exempted from filing fees, and approved by the
 2480  Department of State.
 2481         2.Organized and operated to conduct programs and
 2482  activities; raise funds; request and receive grants, gifts, and
 2483  bequests of money; acquire, receive, hold, and invest, in its
 2484  own name, securities, funds, objects of value, or other
 2485  property, either real or personal; and make expenditures or
 2486  provide funding to or for the direct or indirect benefit of the
 2487  department in the furtherance of the prescription drug
 2488  monitoring program.
 2489         (b)The State Surgeon General shall appoint a board of
 2490  directors for the direct-support organization.
 2491         1. The board of directors shall consist of no fewer than
 2492  five members who shall serve at the pleasure of the State
 2493  Surgeon General.
 2494         2.The State Surgeon General shall provide guidance to
 2495  members of the board to ensure that moneys received by the
 2496  direct-support organization are not received from inappropriate
 2497  sources. Inappropriate sources include, but are not limited to,
 2498  donors, grantors, persons, prescription drug manufacturers, or
 2499  organizations that may monetarily or substantively benefit from
 2500  the purchase of goods or services by the department in
 2501  furtherance of the prescription drug monitoring program.
 2502         (c)The direct-support organization shall operate under
 2503  written contract with the department. The contract must, at a
 2504  minimum, provide for:
 2505         1.Approval of the articles of incorporation and bylaws of
 2506  the direct-support organization by the department.
 2507         2.Submission of an annual budget for the approval of the
 2508  department.
 2509         3.The reversion, without penalty, to the department’s
 2510  grants and donations trust fund for the administration of the
 2511  prescription drug monitoring program of all moneys and property
 2512  held in trust by the direct-support organization for the benefit
 2513  of the prescription drug monitoring program if the direct
 2514  support organization ceases to exist or if the contract is
 2515  terminated.
 2516         4.The fiscal year of the direct-support organization,
 2517  which must begin July 1 of each year and end June 30 of the
 2518  following year.
 2519         5.The disclosure of the material provisions of the
 2520  contract to donors of gifts, contributions, or bequests,
 2521  including such disclosure on all promotional and fundraising
 2522  publications, and an explanation to such donors of the
 2523  distinction between the department and the direct-support
 2524  organization.
 2525         6.The direct-support organization’s collecting, expending,
 2526  and providing of funds to the department for the development,
 2527  implementation, and operation of the prescription drug
 2528  monitoring program as described in this section. The direct
 2529  support organization may collect and expend funds to be used for
 2530  the functions of the direct-support organization’s board of
 2531  directors, as necessary and approved by the department. In
 2532  addition, the direct-support organization may collect and
 2533  provide funding to the department in furtherance of the
 2534  prescription drug monitoring program by:
 2535         a.Establishing and administering the prescription drug
 2536  monitoring program’s electronic system, including hardware and
 2537  software.
 2538         b.Conducting studies on the efficiency and effectiveness
 2539  of the program to include feasibility studies as described in
 2540  subsection (13).
 2541         c.Providing funds for future enhancements of the program
 2542  within the intent of this section.
 2543         d.Providing user training of the prescription drug
 2544  monitoring program, including distribution of materials to
 2545  promote public awareness and education and conducting workshops
 2546  or other meetings for health care practitioners, pharmacists,
 2547  and others as appropriate.
 2548         e.Providing funds for travel expenses.
 2549         f.Providing funds for administrative costs, including
 2550  personnel, audits, facilities, and equipment.
 2551         g.Fulfilling all other requirements necessary to implement
 2552  and operate the program as outlined in this section.
 2553         7.Certification by the department that the direct-support
 2554  organization is complying with the terms of the contract in a
 2555  manner consistent with and in furtherance of the goals and
 2556  purposes of the prescription drug monitoring program and in the
 2557  best interests of the state. Such certification must be made
 2558  annually and reported in the official minutes of a meeting of
 2559  the direct-support organization.
 2560         (d)The activities of the direct-support organization must
 2561  be consistent with the goals and mission of the department, as
 2562  determined by the department, and in the best interests of the
 2563  state. The direct-support organization must obtain written
 2564  approval from the department for any activities in support of
 2565  the prescription drug monitoring program before undertaking
 2566  those activities.
 2567         (e)The direct-support organization shall provide for an
 2568  independent annual financial audit in accordance with s.
 2569  215.981. Copies of the audit shall be provided to the department
 2570  and the Office of Policy and Budget in the Executive Office of
 2571  the Governor.
 2572         (f)The direct-support organization may not exercise any
 2573  power under s. 617.0302(12) or (16).
 2574         (g)The direct-support organization is not considered a
 2575  lobbying firm within the meaning of s. 11.045.
 2576         (h)The department may permit, without charge, appropriate
 2577  use of administrative services, property, and facilities of the
 2578  department by the direct-support organization, subject to this
 2579  section. The use must be directly in keeping with the approved
 2580  purposes of the direct-support organization and may not be made
 2581  at times or places that would unreasonably interfere with
 2582  opportunities for the public to use such facilities for
 2583  established purposes. Any moneys received from rentals of
 2584  facilities and properties managed by the department may be held
 2585  in a separate depository account in the name of the direct
 2586  support organization and subject to the provisions of the letter
 2587  of agreement with the department. The letter of agreement must
 2588  provide that any funds held in the separate depository account
 2589  in the name of the direct-support organization must revert to
 2590  the department if the direct-support organization is no longer
 2591  approved by the department to operate in the best interests of
 2592  the state.
 2593         (i)The department may adopt rules under s. 120.54 to
 2594  govern the use of administrative services, property, or
 2595  facilities of the department or office by the direct-support
 2596  organization.
 2597         (j)The department may not permit the use of any
 2598  administrative services, property, or facilities of the state by
 2599  a direct-support organization if that organization does not
 2600  provide equal membership and employment opportunities to all
 2601  persons regardless of race, color, religion, gender, age, or
 2602  national origin.
 2603         (k)This subsection is repealed October 1, 2027, unless
 2604  reviewed and saved from repeal by the Legislature.
 2605         (16)The department shall adopt rules necessary to
 2606  implement this section.
 2607         Section 13. Section 893.0551, Florida Statutes, is amended
 2608  to read:
 2609         893.0551 Public records exemption for the prescription drug
 2610  monitoring program.—
 2611         (1) For purposes of this section, the terms used in this
 2612  section have the same meanings as provided in s. 893.055.
 2613         (2) The following information of a patient or patient’s
 2614  agent, a health care practitioner, a dispenser, an employee of
 2615  the practitioner who is acting on behalf of and at the direction
 2616  of the practitioner, a pharmacist, or a pharmacy that is
 2617  contained in records held by the department under s. 893.055 is
 2618  confidential and exempt from s. 119.07(1) and s. 24(a), Art. I
 2619  of the State Constitution:
 2620         (a) Name.
 2621         (b) Address.
 2622         (c) Telephone number.
 2623         (d) Insurance plan number.
 2624         (e) Government-issued identification number.
 2625         (f) Provider number.
 2626         (g) Drug Enforcement Administration number.
 2627         (h) Any other unique identifying information or number.
 2628         (3) The department shall disclose such confidential and
 2629  exempt information to the following persons or entities upon
 2630  request and after using a verification process to ensure the
 2631  legitimacy of the request as provided in s. 893.055:
 2632         (a)A health care practitioner, or his or her designee, who
 2633  certifies that the information is necessary to provide medical
 2634  treatment to a current patient in accordance with ss. 893.04,
 2635  893.05, and 893.055.
 2636         (b)An employee of the United States Department of Veterans
 2637  Affairs, the United States Department of Defense, or the Indian
 2638  Health Service who provides health care services pursuant to
 2639  such employment and who has the authority to prescribe
 2640  controlled substances shall have access to the information in
 2641  the program’s system upon verification of such employment.
 2642         (c)The program manager and designated support staff for
 2643  administration of the program, and to provide relevant
 2644  information to the prescriber, dispenser, and appropriate law
 2645  enforcement agencies, in accordance with s. 893.055.
 2646         (d)The department and its relevant health care regulatory
 2647  boards for investigations involving licensees authorized to
 2648  prescribe or dispense controlled substances. The department or
 2649  health care regulatory board may request information from the
 2650  program but may not have direct access to its system. The
 2651  department may provide to a law enforcement agency pursuant to
 2652  ss. 456.066 and 456.073 only information that is relevant to the
 2653  specific controlled substances investigation that prompted the
 2654  request for the information.
 2655         (e)(a) The Attorney General or his or her designee when
 2656  working on Medicaid fraud cases involving prescribed controlled
 2657  substances prescription drugs or when the Attorney General has
 2658  initiated a review of specific identifiers of Medicaid fraud or
 2659  specific identifiers that warrant a Medicaid investigation
 2660  regarding prescribed controlled substances prescription drugs.
 2661  The Attorney General’s Medicaid fraud investigators may not have
 2662  direct access to the department’s system database. The Attorney
 2663  General or his or her designee may disclose to a criminal
 2664  justice agency, as defined in s. 119.011, only the confidential
 2665  and exempt information received from the department that is
 2666  relevant to an identified active investigation that prompted the
 2667  request for the information.
 2668         (b)The department’s relevant health care regulatory boards
 2669  responsible for the licensure, regulation, or discipline of a
 2670  practitioner, pharmacist, or other person who is authorized to
 2671  prescribe, administer, or dispense controlled substances and who
 2672  is involved in a specific controlled substances investigation
 2673  for prescription drugs involving a designated person. The health
 2674  care regulatory boards may request information from the
 2675  department but may not have direct access to its database. The
 2676  health care regulatory boards may provide to a law enforcement
 2677  agency pursuant to ss. 456.066 and 456.073 only information that
 2678  is relevant to the specific controlled substances investigation
 2679  that prompted the request for the information.
 2680         (f)(c) A law enforcement agency that has initiated an
 2681  active investigation involving a specific violation of law
 2682  regarding prescription drug abuse or diversion of prescribed
 2683  controlled substances and that has entered into a user agreement
 2684  with the department. A law enforcement agency may request
 2685  information from the department but may not have direct access
 2686  to its system database. The law enforcement agency may disclose
 2687  to a criminal justice agency, as defined in s. 119.011, only
 2688  confidential and exempt information received from the department
 2689  that is relevant to an identified active investigation that
 2690  prompted the request for such information.
 2691         (g)A district medical examiner or associate medical
 2692  examiner, as described in s. 406.06, pursuant to his or her
 2693  official duties, as required by s. 406.11, to determine the
 2694  cause of death of an individual. Such medical examiners may
 2695  request information from the department but may not have direct
 2696  access to the system
 2697         (d) A health care practitioner, or his or her designee, who
 2698  certifies that the information is necessary to provide medical
 2699  treatment to a current patient in accordance with ss. 893.05 and
 2700  893.055.
 2701         (e) A pharmacist, or his or her designee, who certifies
 2702  that the requested information will be used to dispense
 2703  controlled substances to a current patient in accordance with
 2704  ss. 893.04 and 893.055.
 2705         (f)A patient or the legal guardian or designated health
 2706  care surrogate for an incapacitated patient, if applicable,
 2707  making a request as provided in s. 893.055(7)(c)4.
 2708         (g) The patient’s pharmacy, prescriber, or dispenser, or
 2709  the designee of the pharmacy, prescriber, or dispenser, who
 2710  certifies that the information is necessary to provide medical
 2711  treatment to his or her current patient in accordance with s.
 2712  893.055.
 2713         (h) An impaired practitioner consultant who has been
 2714  authorized in writing by a participant in, or by a referral to,
 2715  the impaired practitioner program to access and review
 2716  information as provided in s. 893.055(5)(e) 893.055(7)(c)5.
 2717         (i)A patient or the legal guardian or designated health
 2718  care surrogate for an incapacitated patient, if applicable,
 2719  making a request as provided in s. 893.055(5)(f).
 2720         (4) If the department determines consistent with its rules
 2721  that a pattern of controlled substance abuse exists, the
 2722  department may disclose such confidential and exempt information
 2723  to the applicable law enforcement agency in accordance with s.
 2724  893.055. The law enforcement agency may disclose to a criminal
 2725  justice agency, as defined in s. 119.011, only confidential and
 2726  exempt information received from the department that is relevant
 2727  to an identified active investigation that is specific to a
 2728  violation of s. 893.13(7)(a)8., s. 893.13(8)(a), or s.
 2729  893.13(8)(b).
 2730         (5) Before disclosing confidential and exempt information
 2731  to a criminal justice agency or a law enforcement agency
 2732  pursuant to this section, the disclosing person or entity must
 2733  take steps to ensure the continued confidentiality of all
 2734  confidential and exempt information. At a minimum, these steps
 2735  must include redacting any nonrelevant information.
 2736         (6) An agency or person who obtains any confidential and
 2737  exempt information pursuant to this section must maintain the
 2738  confidential and exempt status of that information and may not
 2739  disclose such information unless authorized by law. Information
 2740  shared with a state attorney pursuant to paragraph (3)(f) (3)(a)
 2741  or paragraph (3)(h) (3)(c) may be released only in response to a
 2742  discovery demand if such information is directly related to the
 2743  criminal case for which the information was requested. Unrelated
 2744  information may be released only upon an order of a court of
 2745  competent jurisdiction.
 2746         (7) A person who willfully and knowingly violates this
 2747  section commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as
 2748  provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2749         Section 14. Paragraphs (a), (c), (d), (e), (f), and (h) of
 2750  subsection (1), subsection (2), paragraphs (a) and (b) of
 2751  subsection (4), and subsections (5) and (7) of section 893.13,
 2752  Florida Statutes, are amended to read:
 2753         893.13 Prohibited acts; penalties.—
 2754         (1)(a) Except as authorized by this chapter and chapter
 2755  499, a person may not sell, manufacture, or deliver, or possess
 2756  with intent to sell, manufacture, or deliver, a controlled
 2757  substance. A person who violates this provision with respect to:
 2758         1. A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2759  893.03(1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(d), (2)(a), (2)(b), or (2)(c)5.
 2760  (2)(c)4. commits a felony of the second degree, punishable as
 2761  provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2762         2. A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2763  893.03(1)(c), (2)(c)1., (2)(c)2., (2)(c)3., (2)(c)5., (2)(c)6.,
 2764  (2)(c)7., (2)(c)8., (2)(c)9., (2)(c)10., (3), or (4) commits a
 2765  felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s.
 2766  775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2767         3. A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2768  893.03(5) commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable
 2769  as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
 2770         (c) Except as authorized by this chapter, a person may not
 2771  sell, manufacture, or deliver, or possess with intent to sell,
 2772  manufacture, or deliver, a controlled substance in, on, or
 2773  within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a child care
 2774  facility as defined in s. 402.302 or a public or private
 2775  elementary, middle, or secondary school between the hours of 6
 2776  a.m. and 12 midnight, or at any time in, on, or within 1,000
 2777  feet of real property comprising a state, county, or municipal
 2778  park, a community center, or a publicly owned recreational
 2779  facility. As used in this paragraph, the term “community center”
 2780  means a facility operated by a nonprofit community-based
 2781  organization for the provision of recreational, social, or
 2782  educational services to the public. A person who violates this
 2783  paragraph with respect to:
 2784         1. A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2785  893.03(1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(d), (2)(a), (2)(b), or (2)(c)5.
 2786  (2)(c)4. commits a felony of the first degree, punishable as
 2787  provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084. The defendant
 2788  must be sentenced to a minimum term of imprisonment of 3
 2789  calendar years unless the offense was committed within 1,000
 2790  feet of the real property comprising a child care facility as
 2791  defined in s. 402.302.
 2792         2. A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2793  893.03(1)(c), (2)(c)1., (2)(c)2., (2)(c)3., (2)(c)5., (2)(c)6.,
 2794  (2)(c)7., (2)(c)8., (2)(c)9., (2)(c)10., (3), or (4) commits a
 2795  felony of the second degree, punishable as provided in s.
 2796  775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2797         3. Any other controlled substance, except as lawfully sold,
 2798  manufactured, or delivered, must be sentenced to pay a $500 fine
 2799  and to serve 100 hours of public service in addition to any
 2800  other penalty prescribed by law.
 2801  
 2802  This paragraph does not apply to a child care facility unless
 2803  the owner or operator of the facility posts a sign that is not
 2804  less than 2 square feet in size with a word legend identifying
 2805  the facility as a licensed child care facility and that is
 2806  posted on the property of the child care facility in a
 2807  conspicuous place where the sign is reasonably visible to the
 2808  public.
 2809         (d) Except as authorized by this chapter, a person may not
 2810  sell, manufacture, or deliver, or possess with intent to sell,
 2811  manufacture, or deliver, a controlled substance in, on, or
 2812  within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a public or
 2813  private college, university, or other postsecondary educational
 2814  institution. A person who violates this paragraph with respect
 2815  to:
 2816         1. A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2817  893.03(1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(d), (2)(a), (2)(b), or (2)(c)5.
 2818  (2)(c)4. commits a felony of the first degree, punishable as
 2819  provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2820         2. A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2821  893.03(1)(c), (2)(c)1., (2)(c)2., (2)(c)3., (2)(c)5., (2)(c)6.,
 2822  (2)(c)7., (2)(c)8., (2)(c)9., (2)(c)10., (3), or (4) commits a
 2823  felony of the second degree, punishable as provided in s.
 2824  775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2825         3. Any other controlled substance, except as lawfully sold,
 2826  manufactured, or delivered, must be sentenced to pay a $500 fine
 2827  and to serve 100 hours of public service in addition to any
 2828  other penalty prescribed by law.
 2829         (e) Except as authorized by this chapter, a person may not
 2830  sell, manufacture, or deliver, or possess with intent to sell,
 2831  manufacture, or deliver, a controlled substance not authorized
 2832  by law in, on, or within 1,000 feet of a physical place for
 2833  worship at which a church or religious organization regularly
 2834  conducts religious services or within 1,000 feet of a
 2835  convenience business as defined in s. 812.171. A person who
 2836  violates this paragraph with respect to:
 2837         1. A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2838  893.03(1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(d), (2)(a), (2)(b), or (2)(c)5.
 2839  (2)(c)4. commits a felony of the first degree, punishable as
 2840  provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2841         2. A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2842  893.03(1)(c), (2)(c)1., (2)(c)2., (2)(c)3., (2)(c)5., (2)(c)6.,
 2843  (2)(c)7., (2)(c)8., (2)(c)9., (2)(c)10., (3), or (4) commits a
 2844  felony of the second degree, punishable as provided in s.
 2845  775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2846         3. Any other controlled substance, except as lawfully sold,
 2847  manufactured, or delivered, must be sentenced to pay a $500 fine
 2848  and to serve 100 hours of public service in addition to any
 2849  other penalty prescribed by law.
 2850         (f) Except as authorized by this chapter, a person may not
 2851  sell, manufacture, or deliver, or possess with intent to sell,
 2852  manufacture, or deliver, a controlled substance in, on, or
 2853  within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising a public
 2854  housing facility at any time. As used in this section, the term
 2855  “real property comprising a public housing facility” means real
 2856  property, as defined in s. 421.03(12), of a public corporation
 2857  created as a housing authority pursuant to part I of chapter
 2858  421. A person who violates this paragraph with respect to:
 2859         1. A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2860  893.03(1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(d), (2)(a), (2)(b), or (2)(c)5.
 2861  (2)(c)4. commits a felony of the first degree, punishable as
 2862  provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2863         2. A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2864  893.03(1)(c), (2)(c)1., (2)(c)2., (2)(c)3., (2)(c)5., (2)(c)6.,
 2865  (2)(c)7., (2)(c)8., (2)(c)9., (2)(c)10., (3), or (4) commits a
 2866  felony of the second degree, punishable as provided in s.
 2867  775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2868         3. Any other controlled substance, except as lawfully sold,
 2869  manufactured, or delivered, must be sentenced to pay a $500 fine
 2870  and to serve 100 hours of public service in addition to any
 2871  other penalty prescribed by law.
 2872         (h) Except as authorized by this chapter, a person may not
 2873  sell, manufacture, or deliver, or possess with intent to sell,
 2874  manufacture, or deliver, a controlled substance in, on, or
 2875  within 1,000 feet of the real property comprising an assisted
 2876  living facility, as that term is used in chapter 429. A person
 2877  who violates this paragraph with respect to:
 2878         1. A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2879  893.03(1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(d), (2)(a), (2)(b), or (2)(c)5.
 2880  (2)(c)4. commits a felony of the first degree, punishable as
 2881  provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2882         2. A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2883  893.03(1)(c), (2)(c)1., (2)(c)2., (2)(c)3., (2)(c)5., (2)(c)6.,
 2884  (2)(c)7., (2)(c)8., (2)(c)9., (2)(c)10., (3), or (4) commits a
 2885  felony of the second degree, punishable as provided in s.
 2886  775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2887         3. Any other controlled substance, except as lawfully sold,
 2888  manufactured, or delivered, must be sentenced to pay a $500 fine
 2889  and to serve 100 hours of public service in addition to any
 2890  other penalty prescribed by law.
 2891         (2)(a) Except as authorized by this chapter and chapter
 2892  499, a person may not purchase, or possess with intent to
 2893  purchase, a controlled substance. A person who violates this
 2894  provision with respect to:
 2895         1. A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2896  893.03(1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(d), (2)(a), (2)(b), or (2)(c)5.
 2897  (2)(c)4. commits a felony of the second degree, punishable as
 2898  provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2899         2. A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2900  893.03(1)(c), (2)(c)1., (2)(c)2., (2)(c)3., (2)(c)5., (2)(c)6.,
 2901  (2)(c)7., (2)(c)8., (2)(c)9., (2)(c)10., (3), or (4) commits a
 2902  felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s.
 2903  775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2904         3. A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2905  893.03(5) commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable
 2906  as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
 2907         (b) Except as provided in this chapter, a person may not
 2908  purchase more than 10 grams of any substance named or described
 2909  in s. 893.03(1)(a) or (1)(b), or any combination thereof, or any
 2910  mixture containing any such substance. A person who violates
 2911  this paragraph commits a felony of the first degree, punishable
 2912  as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2913         (4) Except as authorized by this chapter, a person 18 years
 2914  of age or older may not deliver any controlled substance to a
 2915  person younger than 18 years of age, use or hire a person
 2916  younger than 18 years of age as an agent or employee in the sale
 2917  or delivery of such a substance, or use such person to assist in
 2918  avoiding detection or apprehension for a violation of this
 2919  chapter. A person who violates this subsection with respect to:
 2920         (a) A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2921  893.03(1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(d), (2)(a), (2)(b), or (2)(c)5.
 2922  (2)(c)4. commits a felony of the first degree, punishable as
 2923  provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2924         (b) A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2925  893.03(1)(c), (2)(c)1., (2)(c)2., (2)(c)3., (2)(c)5., (2)(c)6.,
 2926  (2)(c)7., (2)(c)8., (2)(c)9., (2)(c)10., (3), or (4) commits a
 2927  felony of the second degree, punishable as provided in s.
 2928  775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2929  
 2930  Imposition of sentence may not be suspended or deferred, and the
 2931  person so convicted may not be placed on probation.
 2932         (5) A person may not bring into this state any controlled
 2933  substance unless the possession of such controlled substance is
 2934  authorized by this chapter or unless such person is licensed to
 2935  do so by the appropriate federal agency. A person who violates
 2936  this provision with respect to:
 2937         (a) A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2938  893.03(1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(d), (2)(a), (2)(b), or (2)(c)5.
 2939  (2)(c)4. commits a felony of the second degree, punishable as
 2940  provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2941         (b) A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2942  893.03(1)(c), (2)(c)1., (2)(c)2., (2)(c)3., (2)(c)5., (2)(c)6.,
 2943  (2)(c)7., (2)(c)8., (2)(c)9., (2)(c)10., (3), or (4) commits a
 2944  felony of the third degree, punishable as provided in s.
 2945  775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2946         (c) A controlled substance named or described in s.
 2947  893.03(5) commits a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable
 2948  as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
 2949         (7)
 2950         (e) A person or health care practitioner who violates the
 2951  provisions of subparagraph (a)13. or paragraph (b) commits a
 2952  felony of the second third degree, punishable as provided in s.
 2953  775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084, if any controlled substance
 2954  that is the subject of the offense is listed in Schedule II,
 2955  Schedule III, or Schedule IV.
 2956         Section 15. Section 893.147, Florida Statutes, is amended,
 2957  to read:
 2958         893.147 Use, possession, manufacture, delivery,
 2959  transportation, advertisement, or retail sale of drug
 2960  paraphernalia, specified machines, and materials.—
 2961         (1) USE OR POSSESSION OF DRUG PARAPHERNALIA.—It is unlawful
 2962  for any person to use, or to possess with intent to use, drug
 2963  paraphernalia:
 2964         (a) To plant, propagate, cultivate, grow, harvest,
 2965  manufacture, compound, convert, produce, process, prepare, test,
 2966  analyze, pack, repack, store, contain, or conceal a controlled
 2967  substance in violation of this chapter; or
 2968         (b) To inject, ingest, inhale, or otherwise introduce into
 2969  the human body a controlled substance in violation of this
 2970  chapter.
 2971  
 2972  Any person who violates this subsection is guilty of a
 2973  misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s.
 2974  775.082 or s. 775.083.
 2975         (2) MANUFACTURE OR DELIVERY OF DRUG PARAPHERNALIA.—It is
 2976  unlawful for any person to deliver, possess with intent to
 2977  deliver, or manufacture with intent to deliver drug
 2978  paraphernalia, knowing, or under circumstances where one
 2979  reasonably should know, that it will be used:
 2980         (a) To plant, propagate, cultivate, grow, harvest,
 2981  manufacture, compound, convert, produce, process, prepare, test,
 2982  analyze, pack, repack, store, contain, or conceal a controlled
 2983  substance in violation of this act; or
 2984         (b) To inject, ingest, inhale, or otherwise introduce into
 2985  the human body a controlled substance in violation of this act.
 2986  
 2987  Any person who violates this subsection is guilty of a felony of
 2988  the third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s.
 2989  775.083, or s. 775.084.
 2990         (3) DELIVERY OF DRUG PARAPHERNALIA TO A MINOR.—
 2991         (a) Any person 18 years of age or over who violates
 2992  subsection (2) by delivering drug paraphernalia to a person
 2993  under 18 years of age is guilty of a felony of the second
 2994  degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s.
 2995  775.084.
 2996         (b) It is unlawful for any person to sell or otherwise
 2997  deliver hypodermic syringes, needles, or other objects which may
 2998  be used, are intended for use, or are designed for use in
 2999  parenterally injecting substances into the human body to any
 3000  person under 18 years of age, except that hypodermic syringes,
 3001  needles, or other such objects may be lawfully dispensed to a
 3002  person under 18 years of age by a licensed practitioner, parent,
 3003  or legal guardian or by a pharmacist pursuant to a valid
 3004  prescription for same. Any person who violates the provisions of
 3005  this paragraph is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree,
 3006  punishable as provided in s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
 3007         (4) TRANSPORTATION OF DRUG PARAPHERNALIA.—It is unlawful to
 3008  use, possess with the intent to use, or manufacture with the
 3009  intent to use drug paraphernalia, knowing or under circumstances
 3010  in which one reasonably should know that it will be used to
 3011  transport:
 3012         (a) A controlled substance in violation of this chapter; or
 3013         (b) Contraband as defined in s. 932.701(2)(a)1.
 3014  
 3015  Any person who violates this subsection commits a felony of the
 3016  third degree, punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083,
 3017  or s. 775.084.
 3018         (5) ADVERTISEMENT OF DRUG PARAPHERNALIA.—It is unlawful for
 3019  any person to place in any newspaper, magazine, handbill, or
 3020  other publication any advertisement, knowing, or under
 3021  circumstances where one reasonably should know, that the purpose
 3022  of the advertisement, in whole or in part, is to promote the
 3023  sale of objects designed or intended for use as drug
 3024  paraphernalia. Any person who violates this subsection is guilty
 3025  of a misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in
 3026  s. 775.082 or s. 775.083.
 3027         (6) RETAIL SALE OF DRUG PARAPHERNALIA.—
 3028         (a) It is unlawful for a person to knowingly and willfully
 3029  sell or offer for sale at retail any drug paraphernalia
 3030  described in s. 893.145(12)(a)-(c) or (g)-(m), other than a pipe
 3031  that is primarily made of briar, meerschaum, clay, or corn cob.
 3032         (b) A person who violates paragraph (a) commits a
 3033  misdemeanor of the first degree, punishable as provided in s.
 3034  775.082 or s. 775.083, and, upon a second or subsequent
 3035  violation, commits a felony of the third degree, punishable as
 3036  provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 3037         (7) TABLETING MACHINES, ENCAPSULATING MACHINES, AND
 3038  CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE COUNTERFEITING MATERIALS.—
 3039         (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), it is unlawful for
 3040  any person to possess, purchase, deliver, sell, or possess with
 3041  intent to sell or deliver a tableting machine, an encapsulating
 3042  machine, or controlled substance counterfeiting materials
 3043  knowing, intending, or having reasonable cause to believe that
 3044  it will be used to manufacture a controlled substance or
 3045  counterfeit controlled substance.
 3046         (b)1. A regulated person may possess, purchase, deliver,
 3047  sell, or possess with intent to deliver or sell a tableting
 3048  machine or encapsulating machine as part of a regulated
 3049  transaction with a regular customer or regular importer if he or
 3050  she is in compliance with 21 U.S.C. s. 830. For purposes of this
 3051  paragraph, the terms “regulated person,” “regulated
 3052  transaction,” “regular customer,” and “regular importer” have
 3053  the same meanings as provided in 21 U.S.C. s. 802.
 3054         2. A person registered under 21 U.S.C. s. 822 may possess,
 3055  purchase, deliver, sell, or possess with intent to deliver or
 3056  sell a tableting machine or encapsulating machine to manufacture
 3057  a controlled substance pursuant to such registration.
 3058         3. A person who holds an active, unencumbered license or a
 3059  permit under s. 381.986 or chapter 465 may possess, purchase,
 3060  deliver, sell, or possess with intent to sell or deliver a
 3061  tableting machine or encapsulating machine to manufacture a
 3062  controlled substance, if such person is performing functions in
 3063  compliance with or under the authority of that license or
 3064  permit.
 3065         (c) For purposes of this subsection, the term:
 3066         1. “Controlled substance” has the same meaning as provided
 3067  in s. 893.02(4).
 3068         2. “Controlled substance counterfeiting material” means a
 3069  punch, die, plate, stone, or other item designed to print,
 3070  imprint, or reproduce the trademark, trade name, or other
 3071  identifying mark, imprint, or device of another or any likeness
 3072  of any of the foregoing upon a drug or container or labeling
 3073  thereof so as to render such drug a counterfeit controlled
 3074  substance.
 3075         3. “Counterfeit controlled substance” has the same meaning
 3076  as provided in s. 831.31(2).
 3077         4. “Encapsulating machine” means manual, semiautomatic, or
 3078  fully automatic equipment that can be used to fill shells or
 3079  capsules with powdered or granular solids or semisolid material
 3080  to produce coherent solid tablets.
 3081         5. “Tableting machine” means manual, semiautomatic, or
 3082  fully automatic equipment that can be used to compact or mold
 3083  powdered or granular solids or semisolid material to produce
 3084  coherent solid tablets.
 3085         (d)1. Except as provided in subparagraph 2., a person who
 3086  violates this subsection commits a felony of the third degree,
 3087  punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 3088         2. Any person who violates this subsection knowing,
 3089  intending, or having reasonable cause to believe that such
 3090  action will result in the unlawful manufacture of a controlled
 3091  substance or counterfeit controlled substance that contains:
 3092         a.A substance controlled under s. 893.03(1);
 3093         b.Cocaine, as described in s. 893.03(2)(a)4.;
 3094         c.Opium or any synthetic or natural salt, compound,
 3095  derivative, or preparation of opium;
 3096         d.Methadone;
 3097         e.Alfentanil, as described in s. 893.03(2)(b)1.;
 3098         f.Carfentanil, as described in s. 893.03(2)(b)6.;
 3099         g.Fentanyl, as described in s. 893.03(2)(b)9.;
 3100         h.Sufentanil, as described in s. 893.03(2)(b)30.; or
 3101         i.A controlled substance analog, as described in s.
 3102  893.0356, of any substance specified in sub-subparagraphs a.-h.,
 3103  
 3104  commits a felony of the second degree, punishable as provided in
 3105  s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 3106         Section 16. Effective January 1, 2019, paragraphs (pp) and
 3107  (qq) of subsection (1) of section 458.331, Florida Statutes, are
 3108  amended to read:
 3109         458.331 Grounds for disciplinary action; action by the
 3110  board and department.—
 3111         (1) The following acts constitute grounds for denial of a
 3112  license or disciplinary action, as specified in s. 456.072(2):
 3113         (pp) Applicable to a licensee who serves as the designated
 3114  physician of a pain-management clinic as defined in s. 458.3265
 3115  or s. 459.0137:
 3116         1. Registering a pain-management clinic through
 3117  misrepresentation or fraud;
 3118         2. Procuring, or attempting to procure, the registration of
 3119  a pain-management clinic for any other person by making or
 3120  causing to be made, any false representation;
 3121         3. Failing to comply with any requirement of chapter 499,
 3122  the Florida Drug and Cosmetic Act; 21 U.S.C. ss. 301-392, the
 3123  Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; 21 U.S.C. ss. 821 et seq.,
 3124  the Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act; or chapter 893, the
 3125  Florida Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act;
 3126         4. Being convicted or found guilty of, regardless of
 3127  adjudication to, a felony or any other crime involving moral
 3128  turpitude, fraud, dishonesty, or deceit in any jurisdiction of
 3129  the courts of this state, of any other state, or of the United
 3130  States;
 3131         5. Being convicted of, or disciplined by a regulatory
 3132  agency of the Federal Government or a regulatory agency of
 3133  another state for, any offense that would constitute a violation
 3134  of this chapter;
 3135         6. Being convicted of, or entering a plea of guilty or nolo
 3136  contendere to, regardless of adjudication, a crime in any
 3137  jurisdiction of the courts of this state, of any other state, or
 3138  of the United States which relates to the practice of, or the
 3139  ability to practice, a licensed health care profession;
 3140         7. Being convicted of, or entering a plea of guilty or nolo
 3141  contendere to, regardless of adjudication, a crime in any
 3142  jurisdiction of the courts of this state, of any other state, or
 3143  of the United States which relates to health care fraud;
 3144         8. Dispensing any medicinal drug based upon a communication
 3145  that purports to be a prescription as defined in s. 465.003(14)
 3146  or s. 893.02 if the dispensing practitioner knows or has reason
 3147  to believe that the purported prescription is not based upon a
 3148  valid practitioner-patient relationship; or
 3149         9. Failing to timely notify the board of the date of his or
 3150  her termination from a pain-management clinic as required by s.
 3151  458.3265(3) 458.3265(2).
 3152         (qq) Failing to timely notify the department of the theft
 3153  of prescription blanks from a pain-management clinic or a breach
 3154  of other methods for prescribing within 24 hours as required by
 3155  s. 458.3265(3) 458.3265(2).
 3156         Section 17.  Effective January 1, 2019, paragraphs (rr) and
 3157  (ss) of subsection (1) of section 459.015, Florida Statutes, are
 3158  amended to read:
 3159         459.015 Grounds for disciplinary action; action by the
 3160  board and department.—
 3161         (1) The following acts constitute grounds for denial of a
 3162  license or disciplinary action, as specified in s. 456.072(2):
 3163         (rr) Applicable to a licensee who serves as the designated
 3164  physician of a pain-management clinic as defined in s. 458.3265
 3165  or s. 459.0137:
 3166         1. Registering a pain-management clinic through
 3167  misrepresentation or fraud;
 3168         2. Procuring, or attempting to procure, the registration of
 3169  a pain-management clinic for any other person by making or
 3170  causing to be made, any false representation;
 3171         3. Failing to comply with any requirement of chapter 499,
 3172  the Florida Drug and Cosmetic Act; 21 U.S.C. ss. 301-392, the
 3173  Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; 21 U.S.C. ss. 821 et seq.,
 3174  the Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act; or chapter 893, the
 3175  Florida Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act;
 3176         4. Being convicted or found guilty of, regardless of
 3177  adjudication to, a felony or any other crime involving moral
 3178  turpitude, fraud, dishonesty, or deceit in any jurisdiction of
 3179  the courts of this state, of any other state, or of the United
 3180  States;
 3181         5. Being convicted of, or disciplined by a regulatory
 3182  agency of the Federal Government or a regulatory agency of
 3183  another state for, any offense that would constitute a violation
 3184  of this chapter;
 3185         6. Being convicted of, or entering a plea of guilty or nolo
 3186  contendere to, regardless of adjudication, a crime in any
 3187  jurisdiction of the courts of this state, of any other state, or
 3188  of the United States which relates to the practice of, or the
 3189  ability to practice, a licensed health care profession;
 3190         7. Being convicted of, or entering a plea of guilty or nolo
 3191  contendere to, regardless of adjudication, a crime in any
 3192  jurisdiction of the courts of this state, of any other state, or
 3193  of the United States which relates to health care fraud;
 3194         8. Dispensing any medicinal drug based upon a communication
 3195  that purports to be a prescription as defined in s. 465.003(14)
 3196  or s. 893.02 if the dispensing practitioner knows or has reason
 3197  to believe that the purported prescription is not based upon a
 3198  valid practitioner-patient relationship; or
 3199         9. Failing to timely notify the board of the date of his or
 3200  her termination from a pain-management clinic as required by s.
 3201  459.0137(3) 459.0137(2).
 3202         (ss) Failing to timely notify the department of the theft
 3203  of prescription blanks from a pain-management clinic or a breach
 3204  of other methods for prescribing within 24 hours as required by
 3205  s. 459.0137(3) 459.0137(2).
 3206         Section 18. Paragraph (b) of subsection (4) of section
 3207  463.0055, Florida Statutes, is amended to read:
 3208         463.0055 Administration and prescription of ocular
 3209  pharmaceutical agents.—
 3210         (4) A certified optometrist shall be issued a prescriber
 3211  number by the board. Any prescription written by a certified
 3212  optometrist for an ocular pharmaceutical agent pursuant to this
 3213  section shall have the prescriber number printed thereon. A
 3214  certified optometrist may not administer or prescribe:
 3215         (b) A controlled substance for the treatment of chronic
 3216  nonmalignant pain as defined in s. 456.44(1)(f) 456.44(1)(e).
 3217         Section 19. Paragraph (a) of subsection (1) of section
 3218  782.04, Florida Statutes, is amended to read:
 3219         782.04 Murder.—
 3220         (1)(a) The unlawful killing of a human being:
 3221         1. When perpetrated from a premeditated design to effect
 3222  the death of the person killed or any human being;
 3223         2. When committed by a person engaged in the perpetration
 3224  of, or in the attempt to perpetrate, any:
 3225         a. Trafficking offense prohibited by s. 893.135(1),
 3226         b. Arson,
 3227         c. Sexual battery,
 3228         d. Robbery,
 3229         e. Burglary,
 3230         f. Kidnapping,
 3231         g. Escape,
 3232         h. Aggravated child abuse,
 3233         i. Aggravated abuse of an elderly person or disabled adult,
 3234         j. Aircraft piracy,
 3235         k. Unlawful throwing, placing, or discharging of a
 3236  destructive device or bomb,
 3237         l. Carjacking,
 3238         m. Home-invasion robbery,
 3239         n. Aggravated stalking,
 3240         o. Murder of another human being,
 3241         p. Resisting an officer with violence to his or her person,
 3242         q. Aggravated fleeing or eluding with serious bodily injury
 3243  or death,
 3244         r. Felony that is an act of terrorism or is in furtherance
 3245  of an act of terrorism, including a felony under s. 775.30, s.
 3246  775.32, s. 775.33, s. 775.34, or s. 775.35, or
 3247         s. Human trafficking; or
 3248         3. Which resulted from the unlawful distribution by a
 3249  person 18 years of age or older of any of the following
 3250  substances, or mixture containing any of the following
 3251  substances, when such substance or mixture is proven to be the
 3252  proximate cause of the death of the user:
 3253         a. A substance controlled under s. 893.03(1);
 3254         b. Cocaine, as described in s. 893.03(2)(a)4.;
 3255         c. Opium or any synthetic or natural salt, compound,
 3256  derivative, or preparation of opium;
 3257         d. Methadone;
 3258         e. Alfentanil, as described in s. 893.03(2)(b)1.;
 3259         f. Carfentanil, as described in s. 893.03(2)(b)6.;
 3260         g. Fentanyl, as described in s. 893.03(2)(b)9.;
 3261         h. Sufentanil, as described in s. 893.03(2)(b)30.
 3262  893.03(2)(b)29.; or
 3263         i. A controlled substance analog, as described in s.
 3264  893.0356, of any substance specified in sub-subparagraphs a.-h.,
 3265  
 3266  is murder in the first degree and constitutes a capital felony,
 3267  punishable as provided in s. 775.082.
 3268         Section 20. Paragraphs (c) and (f) of subsection (1) of
 3269  section 893.135, Florida Statutes, are amended to read:
 3270         893.135 Trafficking; mandatory sentences; suspension or
 3271  reduction of sentences; conspiracy to engage in trafficking.—
 3272         (1) Except as authorized in this chapter or in chapter 499
 3273  and notwithstanding the provisions of s. 893.13:
 3274         (c)1. A person who knowingly sells, purchases,
 3275  manufactures, delivers, or brings into this state, or who is
 3276  knowingly in actual or constructive possession of, 4 grams or
 3277  more of any morphine, opium, hydromorphone, or any salt,
 3278  derivative, isomer, or salt of an isomer thereof, including
 3279  heroin, as described in s. 893.03(1)(b), (2)(a), (3)(c)3., or
 3280  (3)(c)4., or 4 grams or more of any mixture containing any such
 3281  substance, but less than 30 kilograms of such substance or
 3282  mixture, commits a felony of the first degree, which felony
 3283  shall be known as “trafficking in illegal drugs,” punishable as
 3284  provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084. If the
 3285  quantity involved:
 3286         a. Is 4 grams or more, but less than 14 grams, such person
 3287  shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment
 3288  of 3 years and shall be ordered to pay a fine of $50,000.
 3289         b. Is 14 grams or more, but less than 28 grams, such person
 3290  shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment
 3291  of 15 years and shall be ordered to pay a fine of $100,000.
 3292         c. Is 28 grams or more, but less than 30 kilograms, such
 3293  person shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of
 3294  imprisonment of 25 years and shall be ordered to pay a fine of
 3295  $500,000.
 3296         2. A person who knowingly sells, purchases, manufactures,
 3297  delivers, or brings into this state, or who is knowingly in
 3298  actual or constructive possession of, 14 grams or more of
 3299  hydrocodone, as described in s. 893.03(2)(a)1.k.
 3300  893.03(2)(a)1.j., codeine, as described in s. 893.03(2)(a)1.g.,
 3301  or any salt thereof, or 14 grams or more of any mixture
 3302  containing any such substance, commits a felony of the first
 3303  degree, which felony shall be known as “trafficking in
 3304  hydrocodone,” punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083,
 3305  or s. 775.084. If the quantity involved:
 3306         a. Is 14 grams or more, but less than 28 grams, such person
 3307  shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment
 3308  of 3 years and shall be ordered to pay a fine of $50,000.
 3309         b. Is 28 grams or more, but less than 50 grams, such person
 3310  shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment
 3311  of 7 years and shall be ordered to pay a fine of $100,000.
 3312         c. Is 50 grams or more, but less than 200 grams, such
 3313  person shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of
 3314  imprisonment of 15 years and shall be ordered to pay a fine of
 3315  $500,000.
 3316         d. Is 200 grams or more, but less than 30 kilograms, such
 3317  person shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of
 3318  imprisonment of 25 years and shall be ordered to pay a fine of
 3319  $750,000.
 3320         3. A person who knowingly sells, purchases, manufactures,
 3321  delivers, or brings into this state, or who is knowingly in
 3322  actual or constructive possession of, 7 grams or more of
 3323  oxycodone, as described in s. 893.03(2)(a)1.q. 893.03(2)(a)1.o.,
 3324  or any salt thereof, or 7 grams or more of any mixture
 3325  containing any such substance, commits a felony of the first
 3326  degree, which felony shall be known as “trafficking in
 3327  oxycodone,” punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083, or
 3328  s. 775.084. If the quantity involved:
 3329         a. Is 7 grams or more, but less than 14 grams, such person
 3330  shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment
 3331  of 3 years and shall be ordered to pay a fine of $50,000.
 3332         b. Is 14 grams or more, but less than 25 grams, such person
 3333  shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment
 3334  of 7 years and shall be ordered to pay a fine of $100,000.
 3335         c. Is 25 grams or more, but less than 100 grams, such
 3336  person shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of
 3337  imprisonment of 15 years and shall be ordered to pay a fine of
 3338  $500,000.
 3339         d. Is 100 grams or more, but less than 30 kilograms, such
 3340  person shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of
 3341  imprisonment of 25 years and shall be ordered to pay a fine of
 3342  $750,000.
 3343         4.a. A person who knowingly sells, purchases, manufactures,
 3344  delivers, or brings into this state, or who is knowingly in
 3345  actual or constructive possession of, 4 grams or more of:
 3346         (I) Alfentanil, as described in s. 893.03(2)(b)1.;
 3347         (II) Carfentanil, as described in s. 893.03(2)(b)6.;
 3348         (III) Fentanyl, as described in s. 893.03(2)(b)9.;
 3349         (IV) Sufentanil, as described in s. 893.03(2)(b)30.
 3350  893.03(2)(b)29.;
 3351         (V) A fentanyl derivative, as described in s.
 3352  893.03(1)(a)62.;
 3353         (VI) A controlled substance analog, as described in s.
 3354  893.0356, of any substance described in sub-sub-subparagraphs
 3355  (I)-(V); or
 3356         (VII) A mixture containing any substance described in sub
 3357  sub-subparagraphs (I)-(VI),
 3358  
 3359  commits a felony of the first degree, which felony shall be
 3360  known as “trafficking in fentanyl,” punishable as provided in s.
 3361  775.082, s. 775.083, or s. 775.084.
 3362         b. If the quantity involved under sub-subparagraph a.:
 3363         (I) Is 4 grams or more, but less than 14 grams, such person
 3364  shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment
 3365  of 3 years, and shall be ordered to pay a fine of $50,000.
 3366         (II) Is 14 grams or more, but less than 28 grams, such
 3367  person shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of
 3368  imprisonment of 15 years, and shall be ordered to pay a fine of
 3369  $100,000.
 3370         (III) Is 28 grams or more, such person shall be sentenced
 3371  to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of 25 years, and
 3372  shall be ordered to pay a fine of $500,000.
 3373         5. A person who knowingly sells, purchases, manufactures,
 3374  delivers, or brings into this state, or who is knowingly in
 3375  actual or constructive possession of, 30 kilograms or more of
 3376  any morphine, opium, oxycodone, hydrocodone, codeine,
 3377  hydromorphone, or any salt, derivative, isomer, or salt of an
 3378  isomer thereof, including heroin, as described in s.
 3379  893.03(1)(b), (2)(a), (3)(c)3., or (3)(c)4., or 30 kilograms or
 3380  more of any mixture containing any such substance, commits the
 3381  first degree felony of trafficking in illegal drugs. A person
 3382  who has been convicted of the first degree felony of trafficking
 3383  in illegal drugs under this subparagraph shall be punished by
 3384  life imprisonment and is ineligible for any form of
 3385  discretionary early release except pardon or executive clemency
 3386  or conditional medical release under s. 947.149. However, if the
 3387  court determines that, in addition to committing any act
 3388  specified in this paragraph:
 3389         a. The person intentionally killed an individual or
 3390  counseled, commanded, induced, procured, or caused the
 3391  intentional killing of an individual and such killing was the
 3392  result; or
 3393         b. The person’s conduct in committing that act led to a
 3394  natural, though not inevitable, lethal result,
 3395  
 3396  such person commits the capital felony of trafficking in illegal
 3397  drugs, punishable as provided in ss. 775.082 and 921.142. A
 3398  person sentenced for a capital felony under this paragraph shall
 3399  also be sentenced to pay the maximum fine provided under
 3400  subparagraph 1.
 3401         6. A person who knowingly brings into this state 60
 3402  kilograms or more of any morphine, opium, oxycodone,
 3403  hydrocodone, codeine, hydromorphone, or any salt, derivative,
 3404  isomer, or salt of an isomer thereof, including heroin, as
 3405  described in s. 893.03(1)(b), (2)(a), (3)(c)3., or (3)(c)4., or
 3406  60 kilograms or more of any mixture containing any such
 3407  substance, and who knows that the probable result of such
 3408  importation would be the death of a person, commits capital
 3409  importation of illegal drugs, a capital felony punishable as
 3410  provided in ss. 775.082 and 921.142. A person sentenced for a
 3411  capital felony under this paragraph shall also be sentenced to
 3412  pay the maximum fine provided under subparagraph 1.
 3413         (f)1. Any person who knowingly sells, purchases,
 3414  manufactures, delivers, or brings into this state, or who is
 3415  knowingly in actual or constructive possession of, 14 grams or
 3416  more of amphetamine, as described in s. 893.03(2)(c)2., or
 3417  methamphetamine, as described in s. 893.03(2)(c)5.
 3418  893.03(2)(c)4., or of any mixture containing amphetamine or
 3419  methamphetamine, or phenylacetone, phenylacetic acid,
 3420  pseudoephedrine, or ephedrine in conjunction with other
 3421  chemicals and equipment utilized in the manufacture of
 3422  amphetamine or methamphetamine, commits a felony of the first
 3423  degree, which felony shall be known as “trafficking in
 3424  amphetamine,” punishable as provided in s. 775.082, s. 775.083,
 3425  or s. 775.084. If the quantity involved:
 3426         a. Is 14 grams or more, but less than 28 grams, such person
 3427  shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment
 3428  of 3 years, and the defendant shall be ordered to pay a fine of
 3429  $50,000.
 3430         b. Is 28 grams or more, but less than 200 grams, such
 3431  person shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of
 3432  imprisonment of 7 years, and the defendant shall be ordered to
 3433  pay a fine of $100,000.
 3434         c. Is 200 grams or more, such person shall be sentenced to
 3435  a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of 15 calendar years
 3436  and pay a fine of $250,000.
 3437         2. Any person who knowingly manufactures or brings into
 3438  this state 400 grams or more of amphetamine, as described in s.
 3439  893.03(2)(c)2., or methamphetamine, as described in s.
 3440  893.03(2)(c)5. 893.03(2)(c)4., or of any mixture containing
 3441  amphetamine or methamphetamine, or phenylacetone, phenylacetic
 3442  acid, pseudoephedrine, or ephedrine in conjunction with other
 3443  chemicals and equipment used in the manufacture of amphetamine
 3444  or methamphetamine, and who knows that the probable result of
 3445  such manufacture or importation would be the death of any person
 3446  commits capital manufacture or importation of amphetamine, a
 3447  capital felony punishable as provided in ss. 775.082 and
 3448  921.142. Any person sentenced for a capital felony under this
 3449  paragraph shall also be sentenced to pay the maximum fine
 3450  provided under subparagraph 1.
 3451         Section 21. Paragraphs (b) through (e) and (g) of
 3452  subsection (3) of section 921.0022, Florida Statutes, are
 3453  amended to read:
 3454         921.0022 Criminal Punishment Code; offense severity ranking
 3455  chart.—
 3456         (3) OFFENSE SEVERITY RANKING CHART
 3457         (b) LEVEL 2
 3458  
 3459  
 3460  FloridaStatute    FelonyDegree           Description            
 3461  379.2431 (1)(e)3.    3rd   Possession of 11 or fewer marine turtle eggs in violation of the Marine Turtle Protection Act.
 3462  379.2431 (1)(e)4.    3rd   Possession of more than 11 marine turtle eggs in violation of the Marine Turtle Protection Act.
 3463  403.413(6)(c)        3rd   Dumps waste litter exceeding 500 lbs. in weight or 100 cubic feet in volume or any quantity for commercial purposes, or hazardous waste.
 3464  517.07(2)            3rd   Failure to furnish a prospectus meeting requirements.
 3465  590.28(1)            3rd   Intentional burning of lands.     
 3466  784.05(3)            3rd   Storing or leaving a loaded firearm within reach of minor who uses it to inflict injury or death.
 3467  787.04(1)            3rd   In violation of court order, take, entice, etc., minor beyond state limits.
 3468  806.13(1)(b)3.       3rd   Criminal mischief; damage $1,000 or more to public communication or any other public service.
 3469  810.061(2)           3rd   Impairing or impeding telephone or power to a dwelling; facilitating or furthering burglary.
 3470  810.09(2)(e)         3rd   Trespassing on posted commercial horticulture property.
 3471  812.014(2)(c)1.      3rd   Grand theft, 3rd degree; $300 or more but less than $5,000.
 3472  812.014(2)(d)        3rd   Grand theft, 3rd degree; $100 or more but less than $300, taken from unenclosed curtilage of dwelling.
 3473  812.015(7)           3rd   Possession, use, or attempted use of an antishoplifting or inventory control device countermeasure.
 3474  817.234(1)(a)2.      3rd   False statement in support of insurance claim.
 3475  817.481(3)(a)        3rd   Obtain credit or purchase with false, expired, counterfeit, etc., credit card, value over $300.
 3476  817.52(3)            3rd   Failure to redeliver hired vehicle.
 3477  817.54               3rd   With intent to defraud, obtain mortgage note, etc., by false representation.
 3478  817.60(5)            3rd   Dealing in credit cards of another.
 3479  817.60(6)(a)         3rd   Forgery; purchase goods, services with false card.
 3480  817.61               3rd   Fraudulent use of credit cards over $100 or more within 6 months.
 3481  826.04               3rd   Knowingly marries or has sexual intercourse with person to whom related.
 3482  831.01               3rd   Forgery.                          
 3483  831.02               3rd   Uttering forged instrument; utters or publishes alteration with intent to defraud.
 3484  831.07               3rd   Forging bank bills, checks, drafts, or promissory notes.
 3485  831.08               3rd   Possessing 10 or more forged notes, bills, checks, or drafts.
 3486  831.09               3rd   Uttering forged notes, bills, checks, drafts, or promissory notes.
 3487  831.11               3rd   Bringing into the state forged bank bills, checks, drafts, or notes.
 3488  832.05(3)(a)         3rd   Cashing or depositing item with intent to defraud.
 3489  843.08               3rd   False personation.                
 3490  893.13(2)(a)2.       3rd   Purchase of any s. 893.03(1)(c), (2)(c)1., (2)(c)2., (2)(c)3., (2)(c)5., (2)(c)6., (2)(c)7., (2)(c)8., (2)(c)9., (2)(c)10., (3), or (4) drugs other than cannabis.
 3491  893.147(2)           3rd   Manufacture or delivery of drug paraphernalia.
 3492  
 3493  
 3494  
 3495         (c) LEVEL 3
 3496  
 3497  
 3498  FloridaStatute    FelonyDegree           Description            
 3499  119.10(2)(b)         3rd   Unlawful use of confidential information from police reports.
 3500  316.066 (3)(b)-(d)   3rd   Unlawfully obtaining or using confidential crash reports.
 3501  316.193(2)(b)        3rd   Felony DUI, 3rd conviction.       
 3502  316.1935(2)          3rd   Fleeing or attempting to elude law enforcement officer in patrol vehicle with siren and lights activated.
 3503  319.30(4)            3rd   Possession by junkyard of motor vehicle with identification number plate removed.
 3504  319.33(1)(a)         3rd   Alter or forge any certificate of title to a motor vehicle or mobile home.
 3505  319.33(1)(c)         3rd   Procure or pass title on stolen vehicle.
 3506  319.33(4)            3rd   With intent to defraud, possess, sell, etc., a blank, forged, or unlawfully obtained title or registration.
 3507  327.35(2)(b)         3rd   Felony BUI.                       
 3508  328.05(2)            3rd   Possess, sell, or counterfeit fictitious, stolen, or fraudulent titles or bills of sale of vessels.
 3509  328.07(4)            3rd   Manufacture, exchange, or possess vessel with counterfeit or wrong ID number.
 3510  376.302(5)           3rd   Fraud related to reimbursement for cleanup expenses under the Inland Protection Trust Fund.
 3511  379.2431 (1)(e)5.    3rd   Taking, disturbing, mutilating, destroying, causing to be destroyed, transferring, selling, offering to sell, molesting, or harassing marine turtles, marine turtle eggs, or marine turtle nests in violation of the Marine Turtle Protection Act.
 3512  379.2431 (1)(e)6.    3rd   Possessing any marine turtle species or hatchling, or parts thereof, or the nest of any marine turtle species described in the Marine Turtle Protection Act.
 3513  379.2431 (1)(e)7.    3rd   Soliciting to commit or conspiring to commit a violation of the Marine Turtle Protection Act.
 3514  400.9935(4)(a) or (b)   3rd   Operating a clinic, or offering services requiring licensure, without a license.
 3515  400.9935(4)(e)       3rd   Filing a false license application or other required information or failing to report information.
 3516  440.1051(3)          3rd   False report of workers’ compensation fraud or retaliation for making such a report.
 3517  501.001(2)(b)        2nd   Tampers with a consumer product or the container using materially false/misleading information.
 3518  624.401(4)(a)        3rd   Transacting insurance without a certificate of authority.
 3519  624.401(4)(b)1.      3rd   Transacting insurance without a certificate of authority; premium collected less than $20,000.
 3520  626.902(1)(a) & (b)   3rd   Representing an unauthorized insurer.
 3521  697.08               3rd   Equity skimming.                  
 3522  790.15(3)            3rd   Person directs another to discharge firearm from a vehicle.
 3523  806.10(1)            3rd   Maliciously injure, destroy, or interfere with vehicles or equipment used in firefighting.
 3524  806.10(2)            3rd   Interferes with or assaults firefighter in performance of duty.
 3525  810.09(2)(c)         3rd   Trespass on property other than structure or conveyance armed with firearm or dangerous weapon.
 3526  812.014(2)(c)2.      3rd   Grand theft; $5,000 or more but less than $10,000.
 3527  812.0145(2)(c)       3rd   Theft from person 65 years of age or older; $300 or more but less than $10,000.
 3528  815.04(5)(b)         2nd   Computer offense devised to defraud or obtain property.
 3529  817.034(4)(a)3.      3rd   Engages in scheme to defraud (Florida Communications Fraud Act), property valued at less than $20,000.
 3530  817.233              3rd   Burning to defraud insurer.       
 3531  817.234 (8)(b) & (c)   3rd   Unlawful solicitation of persons involved in motor vehicle accidents.
 3532  817.234(11)(a)       3rd   Insurance fraud; property value less than $20,000.
 3533  817.236              3rd   Filing a false motor vehicle insurance application.
 3534  817.2361             3rd   Creating, marketing, or presenting a false or fraudulent motor vehicle insurance card.
 3535  817.413(2)           3rd   Sale of used goods as new.        
 3536  828.12(2)            3rd   Tortures any animal with intent to inflict intense pain, serious physical injury, or death.
 3537  831.28(2)(a)         3rd   Counterfeiting a payment instrument with intent to defraud or possessing a counterfeit payment instrument.
 3538  831.29               2nd   Possession of instruments for counterfeiting driver licenses or identification cards.
 3539  838.021(3)(b)        3rd   Threatens unlawful harm to public servant.
 3540  843.19               3rd   Injure, disable, or kill police dog or horse.
 3541  860.15(3)            3rd   Overcharging for repairs and parts.
 3542  870.01(2)            3rd   Riot; inciting or encouraging.    
 3543  893.13(1)(a)2.       3rd   Sell, manufacture, or deliver cannabis (or other s. 893.03(1)(c), (2)(c)1., (2)(c)2., (2)(c)3., (2)(c)5., (2)(c)6., (2)(c)7., (2)(c)8., (2)(c)9., (2)(c)10., (3), or (4) drugs).
 3544  893.13(1)(d)2.       2nd   Sell, manufacture, or deliver s. 893.03(1)(c), (2)(c)1., (2)(c)2., (2)(c)3., (2)(c)5., (2)(c)6., (2)(c)7., (2)(c)8., (2)(c)9., (2)(c)10., (3), or (4) drugs within 1,000 feet of university.
 3545  893.13(1)(f)2.       2nd   Sell, manufacture, or deliver s. 893.03(1)(c), (2)(c)1., (2)(c)2., (2)(c)3., (2)(c)5., (2)(c)6., (2)(c)7., (2)(c)8., (2)(c)9., (2)(c)10., (3), or (4) drugs within 1,000 feet of public housing facility.
 3546  893.13(4)(c)         3rd   Use or hire of minor; deliver to minor other controlled substances.
 3547  893.13(6)(a)         3rd   Possession of any controlled substance other than felony possession of cannabis.
 3548  893.13(7)(a)8.       3rd   Withhold information from practitioner regarding previous receipt of or prescription for a controlled substance.
 3549  893.13(7)(a)9.       3rd   Obtain or attempt to obtain controlled substance by fraud, forgery, misrepresentation, etc.
 3550  893.13(7)(a)10.      3rd   Affix false or forged label to package of controlled substance.
 3551  893.13(7)(a)11.      3rd   Furnish false or fraudulent material information on any document or record required by chapter 893.
 3552  893.13(8)(a)1.       3rd   Knowingly assist a patient, other person, or owner of an animal in obtaining a controlled substance through deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent representations in or related to the practitioner’s practice.
 3553  893.13(8)(a)2.       3rd   Employ a trick or scheme in the practitioner’s practice to assist a patient, other person, or owner of an animal in obtaining a controlled substance.
 3554  893.13(8)(a)3.       3rd   Knowingly write a prescription for a controlled substance for a fictitious person.
 3555  893.13(8)(a)4.       3rd   Write a prescription for a controlled substance for a patient, other person, or an animal if the sole purpose of writing the prescription is a monetary benefit for the practitioner.
 3556  918.13(1)(a)         3rd   Alter, destroy, or conceal investigation evidence.
 3557  944.47 (1)(a)1. & 2.   3rd   Introduce contraband to correctional facility.
 3558  944.47(1)(c)         2nd   Possess contraband while upon the grounds of a correctional institution.
 3559  985.721              3rd   Escapes from a juvenile facility (secure detention or residential commitment facility).
 3560  
 3561  
 3562  
 3563         (d) LEVEL 4
 3564  
 3565  FloridaStatute              FelonyDegree        Description        
 3566  316.1935(3)(a)                   2nd     Driving at high speed or with wanton disregard for safety while fleeing or attempting to elude law enforcement officer who is in a patrol vehicle with siren and lights activated.
 3567  499.0051(1)                      3rd     Failure to maintain or deliver transaction history, transaction information, or transaction statements.
 3568  499.0051(5)                      2nd     Knowing sale or delivery, or possession with intent to sell, contraband prescription drugs.
 3569  517.07(1)                        3rd     Failure to register securities.
 3570  517.12(1)                        3rd     Failure of dealer, associated person, or issuer of securities to register.
 3571  784.07(2)(b)                     3rd     Battery of law enforcement officer, firefighter, etc.
 3572  784.074(1)(c)                    3rd     Battery of sexually violent predators facility staff.
 3573  784.075                          3rd     Battery on detention or commitment facility staff.
 3574  784.078                          3rd     Battery of facility employee by throwing, tossing, or expelling certain fluids or materials.
 3575  784.08(2)(c)                     3rd     Battery on a person 65 years of age or older.
 3576  784.081(3)                       3rd     Battery on specified official or employee.
 3577  784.082(3)                       3rd     Battery by detained person on visitor or other detainee.
 3578  784.083(3)                       3rd     Battery on code inspector.
 3579  784.085                          3rd     Battery of child by throwing, tossing, projecting, or expelling certain fluids or materials.
 3580  787.03(1)                        3rd     Interference with custody; wrongly takes minor from appointed guardian.
 3581  787.04(2)                        3rd     Take, entice, or remove child beyond state limits with criminal intent pending custody proceedings.
 3582  787.04(3)                        3rd     Carrying child beyond state lines with criminal intent to avoid producing child at custody hearing or delivering to designated person.
 3583  787.07                           3rd     Human smuggling.          
 3584  790.115(1)                       3rd     Exhibiting firearm or weapon within 1,000 feet of a school.
 3585  790.115(2)(b)                    3rd     Possessing electric weapon or device, destructive device, or other weapon on school property.
 3586  790.115(2)(c)                    3rd     Possessing firearm on school property.
 3587  800.04(7)(c)                     3rd     Lewd or lascivious exhibition; offender less than 18 years.
 3588  810.02(4)(a)                     3rd     Burglary, or attempted burglary, of an unoccupied structure; unarmed; no assault or battery.
 3589  810.02(4)(b)                     3rd     Burglary, or attempted burglary, of an unoccupied conveyance; unarmed; no assault or battery.
 3590  810.06                           3rd     Burglary; possession of tools.
 3591  810.08(2)(c)                     3rd     Trespass on property, armed with firearm or dangerous weapon.
 3592  812.014(2)(c)3.                  3rd     Grand theft, 3rd degree $10,000 or more but less than $20,000.
 3593  812.014 (2)(c)4.-10.             3rd     Grand theft, 3rd degree, a will, firearm, motor vehicle, livestock, etc.
 3594  812.0195(2)                      3rd     Dealing in stolen property by use of the Internet; property stolen $300 or more.
 3595  817.505(4)(a)                    3rd     Patient brokering.        
 3596  817.563(1)                       3rd     Sell or deliver substance other than controlled substance agreed upon, excluding s. 893.03(5) drugs.
 3597  817.568(2)(a)                    3rd     Fraudulent use of personal identification information.
 3598  817.625(2)(a)                    3rd     Fraudulent use of scanning device, skimming device, or reencoder.
 3599  817.625(2)(c)                    3rd     Possess, sell, or deliver skimming device.
 3600  828.125(1)                       2nd     Kill, maim, or cause great bodily harm or permanent breeding disability to any registered horse or cattle.
 3601  837.02(1)                        3rd     Perjury in official proceedings.
 3602  837.021(1)                       3rd     Make contradictory statements in official proceedings.
 3603  838.022                          3rd     Official misconduct.      
 3604  839.13(2)(a)                     3rd     Falsifying records of an individual in the care and custody of a state agency.
 3605  839.13(2)(c)                     3rd     Falsifying records of the Department of Children and Families.
 3606  843.021                          3rd     Possession of a concealed handcuff key by a person in custody.
 3607  843.025                          3rd     Deprive law enforcement, correctional, or correctional probation officer of means of protection or communication.
 3608  843.15(1)(a)                     3rd     Failure to appear while on bail for felony (bond estreature or bond jumping).
 3609  847.0135(5)(c)                   3rd     Lewd or lascivious exhibition using computer; offender less than 18 years.
 3610  874.05(1)(a)                     3rd     Encouraging or recruiting another to join a criminal gang.
 3611  893.13(2)(a)1.                   2nd     Purchase of cocaine (or other s. 893.03(1)(a), (b), or (d), (2)(a), (2)(b), or (2)(c)5. (2)(c)4. drugs).
 3612  914.14(2)                        3rd     Witnesses accepting bribes.
 3613  914.22(1)                        3rd     Force, threaten, etc., witness, victim, or informant.
 3614  914.23(2)                        3rd     Retaliation against a witness, victim, or informant, no bodily injury.
 3615  918.12                           3rd     Tampering with jurors.    
 3616  934.215                          3rd     Use of two-way communications device to facilitate commission of a crime.
 3617  
 3618  
 3619  
 3620  
 3621         (e) LEVEL 5
 3622  
 3623  
 3624  FloridaStatute    FelonyDegree           Description            
 3625  316.027(2)(a)        3rd   Accidents involving personal injuries other than serious bodily injury, failure to stop; leaving scene.
 3626  316.1935(4)(a)       2nd   Aggravated fleeing or eluding.    
 3627  316.80(2)            2nd   Unlawful conveyance of fuel; obtaining fuel fraudulently.
 3628  322.34(6)            3rd   Careless operation of motor vehicle with suspended license, resulting in death or serious bodily injury.
 3629  327.30(5)            3rd   Vessel accidents involving personal injury; leaving scene.
 3630  379.365(2)(c)1.      3rd   Violation of rules relating to: willful molestation of stone crab traps, lines, or buoys; illegal bartering, trading, or sale, conspiring or aiding in such barter, trade, or sale, or supplying, agreeing to supply, aiding in supplying, or giving away stone crab trap tags or certificates; making, altering, forging, counterfeiting, or reproducing stone crab trap tags; possession of forged, counterfeit, or imitation stone crab trap tags; and engaging in the commercial harvest of stone crabs while license is suspended or revoked.
 3631  379.367(4)           3rd   Willful molestation of a commercial harvester’s spiny lobster trap, line, or buoy.
 3632  379.407(5)(b)3.      3rd   Possession of 100 or more undersized spiny lobsters.
 3633  381.0041(11)(b)      3rd   Donate blood, plasma, or organs knowing HIV positive.
 3634  440.10(1)(g)         2nd   Failure to obtain workers’ compensation coverage.
 3635  440.105(5)           2nd   Unlawful solicitation for the purpose of making workers’ compensation claims.
 3636  440.381(2)           2nd   Submission of false, misleading, or incomplete information with the purpose of avoiding or reducing workers’ compensation premiums.
 3637  624.401(4)(b)2.      2nd   Transacting insurance without a certificate or authority; premium collected $20,000 or more but less than $100,000.
 3638  626.902(1)(c)        2nd   Representing an unauthorized insurer; repeat offender.
 3639  790.01(2)            3rd   Carrying a concealed firearm.     
 3640  790.162              2nd   Threat to throw or discharge destructive device.
 3641  790.163(1)           2nd   False report of bomb, explosive, weapon of mass destruction, or use of firearms in violent manner.
 3642  790.221(1)           2nd   Possession of short-barreled shotgun or machine gun.
 3643  790.23               2nd   Felons in possession of firearms, ammunition, or electronic weapons or devices.
 3644  796.05(1)            2nd   Live on earnings of a prostitute; 1st offense.
 3645  800.04(6)(c)         3rd   Lewd or lascivious conduct; offender less than 18 years of age.
 3646  800.04(7)(b)         2nd   Lewd or lascivious exhibition; offender 18 years of age or older.
 3647  806.111(1)           3rd   Possess, manufacture, or dispense fire bomb with intent to damage any structure or property.
 3648  812.0145(2)(b)       2nd   Theft from person 65 years of age or older; $10,000 or more but less than $50,000.
 3649  812.015(8)           3rd   Retail theft; property stolen is valued at $300 or more and one or more specified acts.
 3650  812.019(1)           2nd   Stolen property; dealing in or trafficking in.
 3651  812.131(2)(b)        3rd   Robbery by sudden snatching.      
 3652  812.16(2)            3rd   Owning, operating, or conducting a chop shop.
 3653  817.034(4)(a)2.      2nd   Communications fraud, value $20,000 to $50,000.
 3654  817.234(11)(b)       2nd   Insurance fraud; property value $20,000 or more but less than $100,000.
 3655  817.2341(1), (2)(a) & (3)(a)   3rd   Filing false financial statements, making false entries of material fact or false statements regarding property values relating to the solvency of an insuring entity.
 3656  817.568(2)(b)        2nd   Fraudulent use of personal identification information; value of benefit, services received, payment avoided, or amount of injury or fraud, $5,000 or more or use of personal identification information of 10 or more persons.
 3657  817.611(2)(a)        2nd   Traffic in or possess 5 to 14 counterfeit credit cards or related documents.
 3658  817.625(2)(b)        2nd   Second or subsequent fraudulent use of scanning device, skimming device, or reencoder.
 3659  825.1025(4)          3rd   Lewd or lascivious exhibition in the presence of an elderly person or disabled adult.
 3660  827.071(4)           2nd   Possess with intent to promote any photographic material, motion picture, etc., which includes sexual conduct by a child.
 3661  827.071(5)           3rd   Possess, control, or intentionally view any photographic material, motion picture, etc., which includes sexual conduct by a child.
 3662  839.13(2)(b)         2nd   Falsifying records of an individual in the care and custody of a state agency involving great bodily harm or death.
 3663  843.01               3rd   Resist officer with violence to person; resist arrest with violence.
 3664  847.0135(5)(b)       2nd   Lewd or lascivious exhibition using computer; offender 18 years or older.
 3665  847.0137 (2) & (3)   3rd   Transmission of pornography by electronic device or equipment.
 3666  847.0138 (2) & (3)   3rd   Transmission of material harmful to minors to a minor by electronic device or equipment.
 3667  874.05(1)(b)         2nd   Encouraging or recruiting another to join a criminal gang; second or subsequent offense.
 3668  874.05(2)(a)         2nd   Encouraging or recruiting person under 13 years of age to join a criminal gang.
 3669  893.13(1)(a)1.       2nd   Sell, manufacture, or deliver cocaine (or other s. 893.03(1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(d), (2)(a), (2)(b), or (2)(c)5. (2)(c)4. drugs).
 3670  893.13(1)(c)2.       2nd   Sell, manufacture, or deliver cannabis (or other s. 893.03(1)(c), (2)(c)1., (2)(c)2., (2)(c)3., (2)(c)5., (2)(c)6., (2)(c)7., (2)(c)8., (2)(c)9., (2)(c)10., (3), or (4) drugs) within 1,000 feet of a child care facility, school, or state, county, or municipal park or publicly owned recreational facility or community center.
 3671  893.13(1)(d)1.       1st   Sell, manufacture, or deliver cocaine (or other s. 893.03(1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(d), (2)(a), (2)(b), or (2)(c)5. (2)(c)4. drugs) within 1,000 feet of university.
 3672  893.13(1)(e)2.       2nd   Sell, manufacture, or deliver cannabis or other drug prohibited under s. 893.03(1)(c), (2)(c)1., (2)(c)2., (2)(c)3., (2)(c)5., (2)(c)6., (2)(c)7., (2)(c)8., (2)(c)9., (2)(c)10., (3), or (4) within 1,000 feet of property used for religious services or a specified business site.
 3673  893.13(1)(f)1.       1st   Sell, manufacture, or deliver cocaine (or other s. 893.03(1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(d), or (2)(a), (2)(b), or (2)(c)5. (2)(c)4. drugs) within 1,000 feet of public housing facility.
 3674  893.13(4)(b)         2nd   Use or hire of minor; deliver to minor other controlled substance.
 3675  893.1351(1)          3rd   Ownership, lease, or rental for trafficking in or manufacturing of controlled substance.
 3676  
 3677  
 3678  
 3679         (g) LEVEL 7
 3680  
 3681  FloridaStatute           FelonyDegree         Description         
 3682  316.027(2)(c)                 1st     Accident involving death, failure to stop; leaving scene.
 3683  316.193(3)(c)2.               3rd     DUI resulting in serious bodily injury.
 3684  316.1935(3)(b)                1st     Causing serious bodily injury or death to another person; driving at high speed or with wanton disregard for safety while fleeing or attempting to elude law enforcement officer who is in a patrol vehicle with siren and lights activated.
 3685  327.35(3)(c)2.                3rd     Vessel BUI resulting in serious bodily injury.
 3686  402.319(2)                    2nd     Misrepresentation and negligence or intentional act resulting in great bodily harm, permanent disfiguration, permanent disability, or death.
 3687  409.920 (2)(b)1.a.            3rd     Medicaid provider fraud; $10,000 or less.
 3688  409.920 (2)(b)1.b.            2nd     Medicaid provider fraud; more than $10,000, but less than $50,000.
 3689  456.065(2)                    3rd     Practicing a health care profession without a license.
 3690  456.065(2)                    2nd     Practicing a health care profession without a license which results in serious bodily injury.
 3691  458.327(1)                    3rd     Practicing medicine without a license.
 3692  459.013(1)                    3rd     Practicing osteopathic medicine without a license.
 3693  460.411(1)                    3rd     Practicing chiropractic medicine without a license.
 3694  461.012(1)                    3rd     Practicing podiatric medicine without a license.
 3695  462.17                        3rd     Practicing naturopathy without a license.
 3696  463.015(1)                    3rd     Practicing optometry without a license.
 3697  464.016(1)                    3rd     Practicing nursing without a license.
 3698  465.015(2)                    3rd     Practicing pharmacy without a license.
 3699  466.026(1)                    3rd     Practicing dentistry or dental hygiene without a license.
 3700  467.201                       3rd     Practicing midwifery without a license.
 3701  468.366                       3rd     Delivering respiratory care services without a license.
 3702  483.828(1)                    3rd     Practicing as clinical laboratory personnel without a license.
 3703  483.901(7)                    3rd     Practicing medical physics without a license.
 3704  484.013(1)(c)                 3rd     Preparing or dispensing optical devices without a prescription.
 3705  484.053                       3rd     Dispensing hearing aids without a license.
 3706  494.0018(2)                   1st     Conviction of any violation of chapter 494 in which the total money and property unlawfully obtained exceeded $50,000 and there were five or more victims.
 3707  560.123(8)(b)1.               3rd     Failure to report currency or payment instruments exceeding $300 but less than $20,000 by a money services business.
 3708  560.125(5)(a)                 3rd     Money services business by unauthorized person, currency or payment instruments exceeding $300 but less than $20,000.
 3709  655.50(10)(b)1.               3rd     Failure to report financial transactions exceeding $300 but less than $20,000 by financial institution.
 3710  775.21(10)(a)                 3rd     Sexual predator; failure to register; failure to renew driver license or identification card; other registration violations.
 3711  775.21(10)(b)                 3rd     Sexual predator working where children regularly congregate.
 3712  775.21(10)(g)                 3rd     Failure to report or providing false information about a sexual predator; harbor or conceal a sexual predator.
 3713  782.051(3)                    2nd     Attempted felony murder of a person by a person other than the perpetrator or the perpetrator of an attempted felony.
 3714  782.07(1)                     2nd     Killing of a human being by the act, procurement, or culpable negligence of another (manslaughter).
 3715  782.071                       2nd     Killing of a human being or unborn child by the operation of a motor vehicle in a reckless manner (vehicular homicide).
 3716  782.072                       2nd     Killing of a human being by the operation of a vessel in a reckless manner (vessel homicide).
 3717  784.045(1)(a)1.               2nd     Aggravated battery; intentionally causing great bodily harm or disfigurement.
 3718  784.045(1)(a)2.               2nd     Aggravated battery; using deadly weapon.
 3719  784.045(1)(b)                 2nd     Aggravated battery; perpetrator aware victim pregnant.
 3720  784.048(4)                    3rd     Aggravated stalking; violation of injunction or court order.
 3721  784.048(7)                    3rd     Aggravated stalking; violation of court order.
 3722  784.07(2)(d)                  1st     Aggravated battery on law enforcement officer.
 3723  784.074(1)(a)                 1st     Aggravated battery on sexually violent predators facility staff.
 3724  784.08(2)(a)                  1st     Aggravated battery on a person 65 years of age or older.
 3725  784.081(1)                    1st     Aggravated battery on specified official or employee.
 3726  784.082(1)                    1st     Aggravated battery by detained person on visitor or other detainee.
 3727  784.083(1)                    1st     Aggravated battery on code inspector.
 3728  787.06(3)(a)2.                1st     Human trafficking using coercion for labor and services of an adult.
 3729  787.06(3)(e)2.                1st     Human trafficking using coercion for labor and services by the transfer or transport of an adult from outside Florida to within the state.
 3730  790.07(4)                     1st     Specified weapons violation subsequent to previous conviction of s. 790.07(1) or (2).
 3731  790.16(1)                     1st     Discharge of a machine gun under specified circumstances.
 3732  790.165(2)                    2nd     Manufacture, sell, possess, or deliver hoax bomb.
 3733  790.165(3)                    2nd     Possessing, displaying, or threatening to use any hoax bomb while committing or attempting to commit a felony.
 3734  790.166(3)                    2nd     Possessing, selling, using, or attempting to use a hoax weapon of mass destruction.
 3735  790.166(4)                    2nd     Possessing, displaying, or threatening to use a hoax weapon of mass destruction while committing or attempting to commit a felony.
 3736  790.23                      1st,PBL   Possession of a firearm by a person who qualifies for the penalty enhancements provided for in s. 874.04.
 3737  794.08(4)                     3rd     Female genital mutilation; consent by a parent, guardian, or a person in custodial authority to a victim younger than 18 years of age.
 3738  796.05(1)                     1st     Live on earnings of a prostitute; 2nd offense.
 3739  796.05(1)                     1st     Live on earnings of a prostitute; 3rd and subsequent offense.
 3740  800.04(5)(c)1.                2nd     Lewd or lascivious molestation; victim younger than 12 years of age; offender younger than 18 years of age.
 3741  800.04(5)(c)2.                2nd     Lewd or lascivious molestation; victim 12 years of age or older but younger than 16 years of age; offender 18 years of age or older.
 3742  800.04(5)(e)                  1st     Lewd or lascivious molestation; victim 12 years of age or older but younger than 16 years; offender 18 years or older; prior conviction for specified sex offense.
 3743  806.01(2)                     2nd     Maliciously damage structure by fire or explosive.
 3744  810.02(3)(a)                  2nd     Burglary of occupied dwelling; unarmed; no assault or battery.
 3745  810.02(3)(b)                  2nd     Burglary of unoccupied dwelling; unarmed; no assault or battery.
 3746  810.02(3)(d)                  2nd     Burglary of occupied conveyance; unarmed; no assault or battery.
 3747  810.02(3)(e)                  2nd     Burglary of authorized emergency vehicle.
 3748  812.014(2)(a)1.               1st     Property stolen, valued at $100,000 or more or a semitrailer deployed by a law enforcement officer; property stolen while causing other property damage; 1st degree grand theft.
 3749  812.014(2)(b)2.               2nd     Property stolen, cargo valued at less than $50,000, grand theft in 2nd degree.
 3750  812.014(2)(b)3.               2nd     Property stolen, emergency medical equipment; 2nd degree grand theft.
 3751  812.014(2)(b)4.               2nd     Property stolen, law enforcement equipment from authorized emergency vehicle.
 3752  812.0145(2)(a)                1st     Theft from person 65 years of age or older; $50,000 or more.
 3753  812.019(2)                    1st     Stolen property; initiates, organizes, plans, etc., the theft of property and traffics in stolen property.
 3754  812.131(2)(a)                 2nd     Robbery by sudden snatching.
 3755  812.133(2)(b)                 1st     Carjacking; no firearm, deadly weapon, or other weapon.
 3756  817.034(4)(a)1.               1st     Communications fraud, value greater than $50,000.
 3757  817.234(8)(a)                 2nd     Solicitation of motor vehicle accident victims with intent to defraud.
 3758  817.234(9)                    2nd     Organizing, planning, or participating in an intentional motor vehicle collision.
 3759  817.234(11)(c)                1st     Insurance fraud; property value $100,000 or more.
 3760  817.2341 (2)(b) & (3)(b)      1st     Making false entries of material fact or false statements regarding property values relating to the solvency of an insuring entity which are a significant cause of the insolvency of that entity.
 3761  817.535(2)(a)                 3rd     Filing false lien or other unauthorized document.
 3762  817.611(2)(b)                 2nd     Traffic in or possess 15 to 49 counterfeit credit cards or related documents.
 3763  825.102(3)(b)                 2nd     Neglecting an elderly person or disabled adult causing great bodily harm, disability, or disfigurement.
 3764  825.103(3)(b)                 2nd     Exploiting an elderly person or disabled adult and property is valued at $10,000 or more, but less than $50,000.
 3765  827.03(2)(b)                  2nd     Neglect of a child causing great bodily harm, disability, or disfigurement.
 3766  827.04(3)                     3rd     Impregnation of a child under 16 years of age by person 21 years of age or older.
 3767  837.05(2)                     3rd     Giving false information about alleged capital felony to a law enforcement officer.
 3768  838.015                       2nd     Bribery.                    
 3769  838.016                       2nd     Unlawful compensation or reward for official behavior.
 3770  838.021(3)(a)                 2nd     Unlawful harm to a public servant.
 3771  838.22                        2nd     Bid tampering.              
 3772  843.0855(2)                   3rd     Impersonation of a public officer or employee.
 3773  843.0855(3)                   3rd     Unlawful simulation of legal process.
 3774  843.0855(4)                   3rd     Intimidation of a public officer or employee.
 3775  847.0135(3)                   3rd     Solicitation of a child, via a computer service, to commit an unlawful sex act.
 3776  847.0135(4)                   2nd     Traveling to meet a minor to commit an unlawful sex act.
 3777  872.06                        2nd     Abuse of a dead human body. 
 3778  874.05(2)(b)                  1st     Encouraging or recruiting person under 13 to join a criminal gang; second or subsequent offense.
 3779  874.10                      1st,PBL   Knowingly initiates, organizes, plans, finances, directs, manages, or supervises criminal gang-related activity.
 3780  893.13(1)(c)1.                1st     Sell, manufacture, or deliver cocaine (or other drug prohibited under s. 893.03(1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(d), (2)(a), (2)(b), or (2)(c)5. (2)(c)4.) within 1,000 feet of a child care facility, school, or state, county, or municipal park or publicly owned recreational facility or community center.
 3781  893.13(1)(e)1.                1st     Sell, manufacture, or deliver cocaine or other drug prohibited under s. 893.03(1)(a), (1)(b), (1)(d), (2)(a), (2)(b), or (2)(c)5. (2)(c)4., within 1,000 feet of property used for religious services or a specified business site.
 3782  893.13(4)(a)                  1st     Use or hire of minor; deliver to minor other controlled substance.
 3783  893.135(1)(a)1.               1st     Trafficking in cannabis, more than 25 lbs., less than 2,000 lbs.
 3784  893.135 (1)(b)1.a.            1st     Trafficking in cocaine, more than 28 grams, less than 200 grams.
 3785  893.135 (1)(c)1.a.            1st     Trafficking in illegal drugs, more than 4 grams, less than 14 grams.
 3786  893.135 (1)(c)2.a.            1st     Trafficking in hydrocodone, 14 grams or more, less than 28 grams.
 3787  893.135 (1)(c)2.b.            1st     Trafficking in hydrocodone, 28 grams or more, less than 50 grams.
 3788  893.135 (1)(c)3.a.            1st     Trafficking in oxycodone, 7 grams or more, less than 14 grams.
 3789  893.135 (1)(c)3.b.            1st     Trafficking in oxycodone, 14 grams or more, less than 25 grams.
 3790  893.135 (1)(c)4.b.(I)         1st     Trafficking in fentanyl, 4 grams or more, less than 14 grams.
 3791  893.135 (1)(d)1.a.            1st     Trafficking in phencyclidine, 28 grams or more, less than 200 grams.
 3792  893.135(1)(e)1.               1st     Trafficking in methaqualone, 200 grams or more, less than 5 kilograms.
 3793  893.135(1)(f)1.               1st     Trafficking in amphetamine, 14 grams or more, less than 28 grams.
 3794  893.135 (1)(g)1.a.            1st     Trafficking in flunitrazepam, 4 grams or more, less than 14 grams.
 3795  893.135 (1)(h)1.a.            1st     Trafficking in gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB), 1 kilogram or more, less than 5 kilograms.
 3796  893.135 (1)(j)1.a.            1st     Trafficking in 1,4-Butanediol, 1 kilogram or more, less than 5 kilograms.
 3797  893.135 (1)(k)2.a.            1st     Trafficking in Phenethylamines, 10 grams or more, less than 200 grams.
 3798  893.135 (1)(m)2.a.            1st     Trafficking in synthetic cannabinoids, 280 grams or more, less than 500 grams.
 3799  893.135 (1)(m)2.b.            1st     Trafficking in synthetic cannabinoids, 500 grams or more, less than 1,000 grams.
 3800  893.135 (1)(n)2.a.            1st     Trafficking in n-benzyl phenethylamines, 14 grams or more, less than 100 grams.
 3801  893.1351(2)                   2nd     Possession of place for trafficking in or manufacturing of controlled substance.
 3802  896.101(5)(a)                 3rd     Money laundering, financial transactions exceeding $300 but less than $20,000.
 3803  896.104(4)(a)1.               3rd     Structuring transactions to evade reporting or registration requirements, financial transactions exceeding $300 but less than $20,000.
 3804  943.0435(4)(c)                2nd     Sexual offender vacating permanent residence; failure to comply with reporting requirements.
 3805  943.0435(8)                   2nd     Sexual offender; remains in state after indicating intent to leave; failure to comply with reporting requirements.
 3806  943.0435(9)(a)                3rd     Sexual offender; failure to comply with reporting requirements.
 3807  943.0435(13)                  3rd     Failure to report or providing false information about a sexual offender; harbor or conceal a sexual offender.
 3808  943.0435(14)                  3rd     Sexual offender; failure to report and reregister; failure to respond to address verification; providing false registration information.
 3809  944.607(9)                    3rd     Sexual offender; failure to comply with reporting requirements.
 3810  944.607(10)(a)                3rd     Sexual offender; failure to submit to the taking of a digitized photograph.
 3811  944.607(12)                   3rd     Failure to report or providing false information about a sexual offender; harbor or conceal a sexual offender.
 3812  944.607(13)                   3rd     Sexual offender; failure to report and reregister; failure to respond to address verification; providing false registration information.
 3813  985.4815(10)                  3rd     Sexual offender; failure to submit to the taking of a digitized photograph.
 3814  985.4815(12)                  3rd     Failure to report or providing false information about a sexual offender; harbor or conceal a sexual offender.
 3815  985.4815(13)                  3rd     Sexual offender; failure to report and reregister; failure to respond to address verification; providing false registration information.
 3816  
 3817  
 3818         Section 22. For the 2018-2019 fiscal year:
 3819         (1)(a)The nonrecurring sum of $27,035,360 from the Federal
 3820  Grants Trust Fund and the recurring sum of $15,520,000 from the
 3821  General Revenue Fund are appropriated to the Department of
 3822  Children and Families. These funds shall be used for the
 3823  following services to address opioid and other substance abuse
 3824  disorders: outpatient, case management, and aftercare services;
 3825  residential treatment; medication-assisted treatment, including
 3826  the purchase and medical use of methadone, buprenorphine, and
 3827  naltrexone extended-release injectable; peer recovery support;
 3828  hospital and first responder outreach; and outreach targeted to
 3829  pregnant women.
 3830         (b)From a total of $4,720,000 of the recurring general
 3831  revenue funds specified in paragraph (a), the Department of
 3832  Children and Families shall contract with a nonprofit
 3833  organization for the distribution and associated costs for the
 3834  following drugs as part of its medication-assisted treatment
 3835  program for substance abuse disorders:
 3836         1.$472,000 for methadone;
 3837         2.$1,888,000 for buprenorphine; and
 3838         3.$2,360,000 for naltrexone extended-release injectable.
 3839         (2)The recurring sum of $6 million from the General
 3840  Revenue Fund is appropriated to the Office of the State Courts
 3841  Administrator for treatment of substance abuse disorders in
 3842  individuals involved in the criminal justice system, individuals
 3843  who have a high likelihood of becoming involved in the criminal
 3844  justice system, or individuals who are in court-ordered,
 3845  community-based drug treatment. The Office of the State Courts
 3846  Administrator shall use the funds to contract with a nonprofit
 3847  entity for the purpose of distributing the medication. The
 3848  Office of the State Courts Administrator shall make available
 3849  the following drugs:
 3850         (a)$600,000 for methadone;
 3851         (b)$2.4 million for buprenorphine; and
 3852         (c)$3 million for naltrexone extended-release injectable.
 3853         (3)The recurring sum of $5 million from the General
 3854  Revenue Fund is appropriated to the Department of Health for the
 3855  purchase of naloxone to be made available to emergency
 3856  responders.
 3857         (4)The sums of $873,089 in recurring funds and $117,700 in
 3858  nonrecurring funds are appropriated from the Medical Quality
 3859  Assurance Trust Fund to the Department of Health for
 3860  improvements to the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program system.
 3861         Section 23. Except as otherwise expressly provided in this
 3862  act, this act shall take effect July 1, 2018.
 3863  
 3864  ================= T I T L E  A M E N D M E N T ================
 3865  And the title is amended as follows:
 3866         Delete everything before the enacting clause
 3867  and insert:
 3868                        A bill to be entitled                      
 3869         An act relating to controlled substances; amending s.
 3870         409.967, F.S.; prohibiting managed care plans and
 3871         their fiscal agents or intermediaries from imposing
 3872         certain requirements or conditions on recipients as a
 3873         prerequisite to receiving medication-assisted
 3874         treatment (MAT) services to treat substance abuse
 3875         disorders; creating s. 456.0301, F.S.; requiring
 3876         certain boards to require certain registered
 3877         practitioners to complete a specified board-approved
 3878         continuing education course to obtain authorization to
 3879         prescribe controlled substances as part of biennial
 3880         license renewal and before a specified date; providing
 3881         course requirements; providing that the course may be
 3882         offered in a distance learning format and requiring
 3883         that it be included within required continuing
 3884         education hours; prohibiting the Department of Health
 3885         from renewing the license of a prescriber under
 3886         specified circumstances; specifying a deadline for
 3887         course completion; providing an exception from the
 3888         course requirements for certain licensees; requiring
 3889         such licensees to submit confirmation of course
 3890         completion; authorizing certain boards to adopt rules;
 3891         amending s. 456.072, F.S.; authorizing disciplinary
 3892         action against practitioners for violating specified
 3893         provisions relating to controlled substances; amending
 3894         s. 456.44, F.S.; defining the term “acute pain”;
 3895         requiring the applicable boards to adopt rules
 3896         establishing certain guidelines for prescribing
 3897         controlled substances for acute pain; providing that
 3898         the failure of a prescriber to follow specified
 3899         guidelines is grounds for disciplinary action;
 3900         limiting opioid drug prescriptions for the treatment
 3901         of acute pain to a specified period under certain
 3902         circumstances; authorizing such prescriptions for an
 3903         extended period if specified requirements are met;
 3904         requiring a prescriber who prescribes an opioid drug
 3905         for the treatment of pain other than acute pain to
 3906         include a specific indication on the prescription;
 3907         requiring a prescriber who prescribes an opioid drug
 3908         for the treatment of pain related to a traumatic
 3909         injury with a specified Injury Severity Score to
 3910         concurrently prescribe an emergency opioid antagonist;
 3911         amending ss. 458.3265 and 459.0137, F.S.; requiring
 3912         pain management clinics to register with the
 3913         department or hold a valid certificate of exemption;
 3914         requiring certain clinics to apply to the department
 3915         for a certificate of exemption; providing requirements
 3916         for such certificates; requiring the department to
 3917         adopt rules necessary to administer such exemptions;
 3918         amending s. 465.0155, F.S.; providing requirements for
 3919         pharmacists for the dispensing of controlled
 3920         substances to persons not known to them; defining the
 3921         term “proper identification”; amending s. 465.0276,
 3922         F.S.; prohibiting the dispensing of certain controlled
 3923         substances in an amount that exceeds a 3-day supply
 3924         unless certain criteria are met; providing an
 3925         exception for the dispensing of certain controlled
 3926         substances by a practitioner to the practitioner’s own
 3927         patients for the medication-assisted treatment of
 3928         opiate addiction; providing requirements for
 3929         practitioners for the dispensing of controlled
 3930         substances to persons not known to them; defining the
 3931         term “proper identification”; amending s. 627.42392,
 3932         F.S.; prohibiting a health insurer from imposing
 3933         certain requirements or conditions on insureds as a
 3934         prerequisite to receiving MAT services to treat
 3935         substance abuse disorders; amending s. 893.03, F.S.;
 3936         correcting a cross-reference; conforming the state
 3937         controlled substances schedule to the federal
 3938         controlled substances schedule; amending s. 893.04,
 3939         F.S.; authorizing a pharmacist to dispense controlled
 3940         substances upon receipt of an electronic prescription
 3941         if certain conditions are met; amending s. 893.055,
 3942         F.S.; revising and providing definitions; revising
 3943         requirements for the prescription drug monitoring
 3944         program; authorizing rulemaking; requiring dispensers
 3945         to report information to the department for each
 3946         controlled substance dispensed; providing
 3947         applicability; requiring the department to maintain an
 3948         electronic system for certain purposes which meets
 3949         specified requirements; requiring certain information
 3950         to be reported to the system by a specified time;
 3951         specifying direct access to system information;
 3952         authorizing the department to enter into reciprocal
 3953         agreements or contracts to share prescription drug
 3954         monitoring information with certain entities;
 3955         providing requirements for such agreements;
 3956         authorizing the department to enter into agreements or
 3957         contracts for secure connections with practitioner
 3958         electronic systems; requiring specified persons to
 3959         consult the system for certain purposes within a
 3960         specified time; providing exceptions to the duty of
 3961         specified persons to consult the system under certain
 3962         circumstances; requiring the department to issue
 3963         citations to prescribers or dispensers who fail to
 3964         meet specified requirements relating to consulting the
 3965         system; requiring the department refer such
 3966         noncompliance to the appropriate board; prohibiting a
 3967         person from failing to report the dispensing of a
 3968         controlled substance when required to do so;
 3969         specifying penalties; authorizing the department to
 3970         enter into agreements or contracts for specified
 3971         purposes; providing for the release of information
 3972         obtained by the system; allowing specified persons to
 3973         have direct access to information for the purpose of
 3974         reviewing the controlled drug prescription history of
 3975         a patient; providing prescriber or dispenser immunity
 3976         from liability for review of patient history when
 3977         acting in good faith; providing construction;
 3978         prohibiting the department from specified uses of
 3979         funds; requiring the department to conduct or
 3980         participate in studies for specified purposes;
 3981         requiring an annual report to be submitted to the
 3982         Governor and Legislature by a specified date;
 3983         providing report requirements; authorizing the
 3984         department to establish a certain direct-support
 3985         organization for specified purposes; defining the term
 3986         “direct-support organization”; requiring a direct
 3987         support organization to operate under written contract
 3988         with the department; providing contract requirements;
 3989         requiring the direct-support organization to obtain
 3990         written approval from the department for specified
 3991         purposes; providing for an independent annual
 3992         financial audit by the direct-support organization;
 3993         providing that copies of such audit be provided to
 3994         specified entities; authorizing the department to
 3995         adopt certain rules relating to resources used by the
 3996         direct-support organization; providing for future
 3997         repeal of provisions relating to the direct-support
 3998         organization; requiring the department to adopt rules
 3999         to implement the system; amending s. 893.0551, F.S.;
 4000         revising provisions concerning the release of
 4001         information held by the prescription drug monitoring
 4002         program; amending s. 893.13, F.S.; correcting cross
 4003         references; increasing the severity of a felony for a
 4004         health care practitioner who provides or a person who
 4005         obtains certain controlled substances that are not
 4006         medically necessary under certain circumstances;
 4007         amending s. 893.147, F.S.; prohibiting any person from
 4008         possessing, purchasing, delivering, selling, or
 4009         possessing with intent to sell or deliver a tableting
 4010         machine, an encapsulating machine, or controlled
 4011         substance counterfeiting materials with knowledge,
 4012         intent, or reasonable cause to believe that it will be
 4013         used to manufacture a controlled substance or
 4014         counterfeit controlled substance; providing an
 4015         exception for persons who meet certain criteria;
 4016         defining terms; providing criminal penalties for
 4017         persons who violate specified provisions relating to
 4018         tableting machines, encapsulating machines, and
 4019         controlled substance counterfeiting materials;
 4020         amending ss. 458.331, 459.015, 463.0055, 782.04,
 4021         893.135, and 921.0022, F.S.; correcting cross
 4022         references; conforming provisions to changes made by
 4023         the act; providing appropriations; providing effective
 4024         dates.